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sergey [27]
3 years ago
13

During 2017, the Gateway City government recorded a $15,000 transfer from the General Fund to an internal service fund; a $25,00

0 transfer from the General Fund to an enterprise fund; a $10,000 transfer from an enterprise fund to an internal service fund, and a $5,000 transfer from an enterprise fund to the General Fund. In the Business-type Activities column of the government-wide financial statements, Gateway City should report:
a. Net transfers out of $5,000.
b. Net transfers in of $10,000.
c. Net Transfers in of $25,000.
d. Net Transfers in of $35,000.
Business
1 answer:
Leya [2.2K]3 years ago
8 0
B. Net transfers out of $10,000
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3 0
3 years ago
Privett Company Accounts payable $29,317 Accounts receivable 70,256 Accrued liabilities 6,298 Cash 16,928 Intangible assets 42,4
makkiz [27]

Answer:

$142,083

Explanation:

Current asset = Accounts receivable + Cash + Inventory + Marketable securities + Prepaid expenses = 70,256 + 16,928 + 73,062 + 36,421 + 2,512 = $199,179

Current liabilities = Accounts payable + Accrued liabilities + Notes payable (short-term) = 29,317 + 6,298 + 21,481 = $57,096

Working capital = Current assets - Current liabilities = 199,179  - 57,096  = $142,083

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Assume that your firm consists of Division 1 (40 percent of the firm) and Division 2 (60 percent of the firm). The capital struc
tresset_1 [31]

Answer:

Division 1's WACC - Division 2's WACC = 11.752% - 14.6656% = - 1.9136% or Division 1 has the lower cost of capital of 1.9136% in absolute term comparing to Division 2.

Explanation:

Before starting, we need to convert unlevered beta into levered beta:

Levered beta of Division 1: 1.2 x ( 1 + (1-40%) x 0.25) = 1.38

Leverage beta of Division 2: 1.46 x ( 1+ (1-40%) x 0.25) = 1.679

Then, we start step by step as below:

First, using the CAPM model: Cost of equity = risk-free rate of return +  beta *(Market Rate of Return – Risk-free Rate of Return) , we find the cost of equity for Division 1 and Division 2.

  - Division 1's cost of Equity = 4% + 1.38 x( 12% -4%) = 15.04%

  - Division 2's cost of equity = 4% + 1.46 x (12% - 4%) = 17.432%

Second, determine the post-tax cost of debt applied for both Division: 6% x (1-tax rate) = 6% x (1 -40%) = 3.60%

Third, calculate the WACC for each Division:

  - Division 1's WACC = % of debt in capital structure x cost of debt + % of equity in capital structure x cost of equity = 20% x 3.6% + 80% x 15.04% = 11.752%;

  - Division 2's WACC = % of debt in capital structure x cost of debt + % of equity in capital structure x cost of equity = 20% x 3.6% + 80% x 17.432% = 14.6656%;

Finally, compare the WACC between the two Division:

Division 1's WACC - Division 2's WACC = 11.752% - 14.6656% = - 1.9136% or Division 1 has the lower cost of capital of 1.9136% in absolute term comparing to Division 2.

6 0
3 years ago
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Which of the following statements is false?
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Answer: D

Explanation:

Not necessarily. As long as the company follows GAAP (IFRS or ASPE), the format and information should be the same. This is because the accounting standards requires firm to report financial information in a specific way.

3 0
2 years ago
Barbara Hastings has no children of her own, but she does have a beloved niece named Ellen Laughridge. Attentive to the future f
timurjin [86]

Answer:

1. Ellen would only be able to recover the $500,000 insurance proceed if she should be able to find a technicality in the insurance company's rules and regulation. <em>This is because, strictly following the rules, there is nothing she can do regarding to the claim.</em>

<em />

2. It is not ethical for the insurance company to deny the claim of Ellen on the basis of technicality but when viewed from another perspective, they are strictly following the rules of the insurance organization and applying it to the later.<em> It is now left for the claimant to find another technicality on why he or she must be paid the insurance claim.</em>

Explanation:

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