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Sauron [17]
2 years ago
10

BT Alex Brown Analysts are evaluating Energen (NYSE: EGN) for possible inclusion in a small-cap oriented portfolio. EGN is a div

ersified energy company involved in oil & gas products. As a result of EGN’s aggressive program of purchasing oil and gas producing properties, BT Alex Brown expects above-average growth for the next five years. The analysts establish the following facts and forecasts for EGN: Current market price is $20 Current dividends are $0.54 Required return on equity is 11% Initial 2-year period of 15% per year earnings and dividend growth Which of the following is closest to the present value of dividends for the first-two years? $0.62 $1.14 $0.71$1.34
Business
1 answer:
Lady bird [3.3K]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The correct option is $1.14

Explanation:

D1=D0*(1+g)

D1 is year 1 dividend

g growth rate of dividend of 15%

D1=$0.54*(1+15%)

D1=$0.54*(1+0.15)

D1=$0.54*1.15

D1=$0.621 00

D2=$0.621*1.15

D2=$0.71415

We need to apply the discount factor to each of the dividends,the discount factor is 1/(1+r)^n

r is the rate of return of 11%

n is the relevant year

present value of year 1 dividend=$0.62100*1/(1+11%)^1

present value of year 1 dividend=$0.559459459

Present value of year 2=$0.71415*1/(1+11%)^2

Present value of year 2=$0.579620161

Total value present values=$0.559459459 +$0.579620161

                                            =$1.14

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A vice president of operations wants to evaluate the impact of reducing manufacturing expenses on the firm's return on assets. W
frosja888 [35]

Available Options Are:

a. Cost of Goods Sold

b. Net Profit Margin

c. None of these

d. Asset Turnover

Answer:

Option B. Net Profit Margin

Explanation:

The increase or decrease in cost of Goods sold can not tell whether the return on assets has increased or decreased becuase it would only tell that the expense are decreased or increased not the profit. Which means it only tells one side of the story hence Option A is incorrect.

Option B is correct because it talks about the profit. If the manufacturing cost has been decreased then the it must increase the profit. Because if the profits has increased then the return on asset will increase. Hence the Option B is correct here.

Option D is incorrect because asset turnover formula is:

Asset Turnover = Sales / Total Assets

The decrease in manufacturing cost will not increase the sales because sales and total assets are independent of manufacturing expenses hence the Option D is incorrect.

3 0
3 years ago
On January 1, 2021, Maywood Hydraulics leased drilling equipment from Aqua Leasing for a four-year period ending December 31, 20
zlopas [31]

Answer: See explanation

Explanation:

The appropriate entries for Maywood on January 1, 2021 and December 31, 2021, related to the lease goes thus:

January 1, 2021:

Debit Right of use asset $368291

Credit Lease payment $368291

December 31, 2021:

Debit Ammortization expense $92073

Credit Rights of use asset $92073

Debit Interest expense $25780

Debit Lease payable $78220

Credit Cash $104000

The working to the above entries has been attached

6 0
3 years ago
Suppose that the Dallas School District wants to achieve Six Sigma quality levels of performance in delivering students to schoo
Kay [80]

Answer:

a) 1.66 minutes

b) 3.4 out of million deliveries

Explanation:

So, it is a six sigma quality question, we first need to understand little bit about six sigma and how it is to achieve six sigma level.

<u>Six Sigma:</u>

It is the process or technique used by many organizations through out the world to achieve maximum quality in a product or in a service they are providing. It helps to indicate root causes of the process or you can say waste steps which first need to be identified then rectified to bring that top-notch quality in the system. So in this case, in order to calculate part a) we will calculate six sigma control limits.

a) So, for six sigma control limits, the maximum allowable standard deviation is 12 or you can say +6 + (-6) = ±6 = 12. It means all deviations must lie in all 12 standard deviations.

<em>Please refer to the table shown in the attachment.</em> This bell curve represent six sigma concept. In this <em>3 sigma quality level means all deviations must lie in 6 standard deviations.</em>

So, here we have been given that mean = 20, so with mean we can calculate standard deviation in six sigma control limits.

Maximum Allowable Standard Deviation for 6 sigma = Mean/12

                                                                                        = 20/12

                                                                                       = 1.66

So, 1.66 is the maximum allowable standard deviation of arrival times required in order to achieve 6 sigma quality level.

b) In this part, we are asked that, out of million deliveries about how many times bus deliver students too early or too late at this 6 sigma quality level.

<em>For this answer, please refer to attachment again</em>. and notice at the left bottom with the arrow of 6 sigma, we have a number 3.4 ppm means 3.4 part per million.

<em>So, it 3.4 times in a million deliveries bus will deliver students either too early or too late. </em>

8 0
3 years ago
Myriad Solutions, Inc. issued 10% bonds, dated January 1, with a face amount of $320 million on January 1, 2021, for $283,294,72
otez555 [7]

Answer:

The net amount of the liability Myriad would report in its balance sheet at December 31, 2021 is $287,524,896

Explanation:

First, we need to determine the amount of discount on the bond at the time of issuance

Discount on Bond = Face value - Issuance value = $320,000,000 - $283,294,720 = $36,705,280

June 30, 2021

Now we will use the effective interest method to calculate the amortization of discount on the bond.

Amortization of Discount = ( Carrying Value x Market yield ) - ( Face value x Coupon rate ) = ( $283,294,720 x 12% ) - ( $320,000,000 x 10% ) = $33,995,366.4 - $32,000,000 = $1,995,366.4 = $1,995,366

Carrying value = $283,294,720 + $1,995,366 = $285,290,086

December 31, 2021

Now we will use the effective interest method to calculate the amortization of discount on the bond.

Amortization of Discount = ( Carrying Value x Market yield ) - ( Face value x Coupon rate ) = ( $285,290,086 x 12% ) - ( $320,000,000 x 10% ) = $34,234,810.32 - $32,000,000 = $2,234,810.32 = $2,234,810

Carrying value = $285,290,086 + $2,234,810 = $287,524,896

5 0
2 years ago
Lana Reid is an accounting clerk at Tenity Enterprises who is paid $18.15 per hour. During a week’s pay period, she worked 39 ho
butalik [34]

Answer:

$720.25

Explanation:

Given data:

Lana salary per hour = $18.15

total hour of work by her is 39 hr 41  minutes

we know from hundredth hour pay method

hundredth hr for 41 mints is = \frac{(41}{60}) \times  100 = 68.33

so we have  39 hrs 41 minutes that can be written as = 39.6833

So, salary for 39.6833 is = $18.15 \times 39.6833 = $720.25

4 0
3 years ago
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