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d1i1m1o1n [39]
2 years ago
9

What is (2x + 1)(3x + 7) simplified

Mathematics
2 answers:
AysviL [449]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

6x^{2}+17x+7 and zeros are -7/3 and -1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

You multiply every property by every variable not in their own parentheses.

2x*3x=6x^2

2x*7=14x

3x*1=3x

7*1=7

6x^2+3x+14x+7

add like variables together 3x+14x

6x^2+17x+7

( To get the zeros just make each equation in the parentheses equal to zero and solve for x.) ex 2x+1=0   x=-1/2

motikmotik2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

6x^2+14x+3x+7=6x^2+17x+7

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PLEASE HELP QUICKLY! 20 points! I will mark best answer as Brainliest!
Alina [70]

t= 2.25 secs

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1 :

Equation for motion with uniform acceleration is v = u+ at

where v is the final velocity

          u is the initial velocity

          a is the acceleration due to gravity

          and t is the time

Step 2 :

Here , v = 0 because at the highest point final velocity is 0.

u = 72 feet/sec

a = -32 ft/sec^2

We need to find the time t.

Substituting in the equation we have,

0 = 72 -32 * t

=> 32 t = 72

=> t = 72/32 = 2.25 secs

4 0
3 years ago
To make concrete it takes 8 parts crushed gravel, 7 parts water and 5 parts cement mix. A worker needs to make 220kg of concrete
Alika [10]
A) 8 + 7 + 5 = 20 parts
b) 220 kg ÷ 20 = 11
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8 0
2 years ago
he number of surface flaws in plastic panels used in the interior of automobiles has a Poisson distribution with a mean of 0.02
Yakvenalex [24]

Answer:

a) 98.01%

b) 13.53\%

c) 27.06%

Step-by-step explanation:

Since a car has 10 square feet of plastic panel, the expected value (mean) for a car to have one flaw is 10*0.02 = 0.2  

If we call P(k) the probability that a car has k flaws then, as P follows a Poisson distribution with mean 0.2,

P(k)= \frac{0.2^ke^{-0.2}}{k!}

a)

In this case, we are looking for P(0)

P(0)= \frac{0.2^0e^{-0.2}}{0!}=e^{-0.2}=0.9801=98.01\%

So, the probability that a car has no flaws is 98.01%

b)

Ten cars have 100 square feet of plastic panel, so now the mean is 100*0.02 = 2 flaws every ten cars.

Now P(k) is the probability that 10 cars have k flaws and  

P(k)= \frac{2^ke^{-2}}{k!}

and  

P(0)= \frac{2^0e^{-2}}{0!}=0.1353=13.53\%

And the probability that 10 cars have no flaws is 13.53%

c)

Here, we are looking for P(1) with P defined as in b)

P(1)= \frac{2^1e^{-2}}{1!}=2e^{-2}=0.2706=27.06\%

Hence, the probability that at most one car has no flaws is 27.06%

6 0
3 years ago
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GenaCL600 [577]

Let the number of miles be x.

Then, x miles cost 0.6x.

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46 = 5 + 0.6x + 5

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0.6x = 36

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3 years ago
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Answer:

0.92

Step-by-step explanation:

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