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Alex17521 [72]
3 years ago
15

Which of the following is always true:

Business
1 answer:
abruzzese [7]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

B) Diluted weighted shares is always greater than or equal to basic weighted average shares

Explanation:

<em>Basic Earnings per Share = Earnings Attributable to Holders of Common Stock ÷ Weighted Average Number of Common Stocks</em>

Diluted Earnings per Share includes the Potential voting rights in the calculation of Weighted Average Number of Common Stocks and thus its weighted shares is always <u>greater than or equal </u>to basic weighted average shares.

Earnings per Share used Weighted Shares Outstanding at Period End instead of just Outstanding Shares at Period End.

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Explain how people manage financial risk through transfer.
Alex Ar [27]

There is always risk of fraudulent behaviors.

Hope this helped! :)

3 0
3 years ago
What is the correct entry for a $100 purchase of supplies on credit?
wolverine [178]

Answer:c

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Vargis Corporation has a machining capacity of 217,000 hours per year. Utilization of capacity is normally 85%; it has been as l
ivanzaharov [21]

Answer:

Check the explanation

Explanation:

Machine hours available at different capacity utilizatiion

at 30% = 217000*30% = 65100

at 90% = 217000*90% = 195300

at 85% = 217000*85% =184450

PER HOUR RATE OF COST A AT 90% CAPACITY

Irrespective of capacity utilization fixed cost will remain same

at different capacity utilization cost A is $457000, so that it is Fixed cost

Per hour rate = $457000/195300 hrs

= 2.34 per hour

COST B AT 30% CAPACITY

per hour rate of cost B is remains same in both 30% and 90%

per unit or per hour variable cost will be same at different capacity only if it is Variable cost

So that Cost B at 30% capacity can be calculated as follows

= 12.5*65,100hrs

=$813,750

COSTS THAT WILL INCUR AT 85% CAPACITY UTILIZATION

Cost A = $457,000 (as fixed cost will remain same)

Cost B = $12.5*184450 hrs  

= $2,305,625 (as variable cost rate per hour will remain same)

Cost C:

As it semi-variable cost we have to find out fixed cost within that

for that first we have to calculate variable cost per hour

VC/hr = Change in Variable cost / Change in machine hours

=(1,347,000-765,000) / (195300-65100)

=582000 / 130200

=$4.47

so variable cost at 30% =4.47*65100

=$290,997

variable cost at 90% = 4.47*195300

= $872,991

So fixed cost of C = Total cost of C - Variable cost of

at 30% capacity = 765000 - 290997

= 474003

( checking correctness) at 90% = 1,347,000 - 872991

=47009 (approx)

So, COST C AT 85% capacity utilization

=variable cost + fixed cost

=(4.47*184450hrs) + 474009

=824491.5 + 474009

=$1,298,500.5

TOTAL COST AT 85% CAPACITY UTILIZATION

=cost A+ cost B+ cost C

=$457,000+$2,305,625+$1,298,500.5

=$4,061,125

6 0
3 years ago
MC Qu. 17 Tower Company planned to produce 3,000 units... Tower Company planned to produce 3,000 units of its single product, Ti
zmey [24]

Answer:

From the list of options, Option A is the only correct one:

"the actual usage of materials was less than the standard allowed".

Explanation:

<em>Material usage variance</em>

A material usage variance occurs when the standard quantity required to active a particular level of production is higher or lower than than the actual actual quantity used. A favorable variance would mean than less quantity of materials were used than the standard to achieve a given output level. And an adverse variance would mean the opposite.

<em>Material price variance</em>

A material price variance occurs where materials are purchased at a price either lower or higher than the standard price. A favorable variance is recorded where the actual total cost of materials is lower that the standard cost. While an adverse variance implies the opposite.

From the list of options, Option A is the only correct one

3 0
3 years ago
JRN Enterprises just announced that it plans to cut its dividend payout in the next year (Div1) from $3.00 to $1.50 per share an
NeX [460]

Answer:

21.42

Explanation:

rE= Div1 / P0+ g

= 3.00/ 25.50 + .04

= 0.15% or 15%

Solve for new stock price:

P0= Div1 / (rE- g)

= 1.50/ (0.15- .08)

=1.50/0.07

= 21.42

Therefore assuming that JRN's risk is unchanged by the expansion, the value of a share of JRN after the announcement is closest to: 21.42

7 0
3 years ago
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