Answer:
ok sooo is there something you need to be figured out orr are you just saying
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:????
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer: x=0.6435011
Step-by-step explanation:
Take the inverse tangent of both sides of the equation to extract
x
from inside the tangent.
x
=
arctan
(
3
4
)
Evaluate
arctan
(
3
4
)
.
x
=
0.6435011
The tangent function is positive in the first and third quadrants. To find the second solution, add the reference angle from
π
to find the solution in the fourth quadrant.
x
=
(
3.14159265
)
+
0.6435011
Simplify the expression to find the second solution.
Tap for more steps...
x
=
3.78509376
Find the period.
Tap for more steps...
π
The period of the
tan
(
x
)
function is
π
so values will repeat every
π
radians in both directions.
x
=
0.6435011
+
π
n
,
3.78509376
+
π
n
, for any integer
n
Consolidate the answers.
x
=
0.6435011
+
π
n
, for any integer
n
Since there are two black queens out of 52 cards, there is a 2/52 chance of drawing a black queen first. This is equivalent to a 1/26 chance.
Now that we have removed a black queen, there are 51 cards left in the deck. 26 of them are red because we only took away a black card. This means that there is a 26/51 of drawing a red card next.
In order to find the probability of both of these happening, we multiply the two together. 1/26 * 26/51 = 26/1326. This reduces to 1/51. So, there is a 1/51 chance of drawing a black queen, then a red card.
Answer: .97
Step-by-step explanation:
