Answer:
Statement # 1: False
Statement # 2: True
Statement # 3: False
Statement # 4: True
Explanation:
Lets look at each statement provided in the question and determine which of them is true or false.
Statement # 1 is false. First things first, the interest on this loan amount is higher which is at 4.15%. This is compared to the interest of 4% applicable on loan option 1. Secondly, there is a four year interest only option. This means that for 4 years there will be no repayments of the principal amount which means that the interest of 4.15% will continue to apply on the entire loan amount for these 4 years. In loan 1 however, principal repayments will reduce the principal amount after the 1st year which would further reduce the interest payment in the second year.
Statement # 2 is true. Loan 2 has an interest only period for the first 4 years. During this year you will only pay the 4.15% interest whereas in loan option 1, you will pay 4% interest AND the principal amount. The effect would offset once principal payments start in loan 2 but it would still mean that payments would be minimized in the first few years.
Statement # 3 is false. One of the advantages of having a loan with an interest free clause is that you can pay it off faster than a conventional loan. Since both the loans are fully amortizing, the principal payments would be different but would both result in the principal being repaid in the full 30 year tenor. Any extra payment that you wish to make would be counted towards principal payment in each loan option. However, for loan 1, the total monthly payments you make would remain the same. For loan 2, the extra payments that you make will continue to lower the monthly payments in way of interest which would allow you to save up more to pay more off in principal. The interest only period will also allow you to arrange extra funds during the IO period and repay the principal further. With loan 1, you will continue to make the same monthly payment until the end.
Statement # 4 is true. A fixed payment is being made each year by way of interest and principal repayments and will remain the same till the loan is fully amortized at maturity. In loan 2 on the other hand, a larger balloon payment will start 4 years later since only interest is paid in the first 4 years. So basically you may lower in the first 4 years and more in the remaining years.
Answer:
d) The bank does not need to pay because of the fictitious payee rule.
Explanation:
Here, the instrument is issued to a payee who has no interest in instrument and thus it is referred as fictitious payee. According to UCC's fictitious payee rule, the indorsement to fictitious payee is not considered forgery. In this case, the maker or drawer of instrument is liable for it. The drawer bank and collecting bank both are not liable for it.
Answer:
$28,000
Explanation:
Data provided in the question:
Cost of the building purchased = $140,000
Estimated salvage value = $8,000
Expected useful life = ten years
Now,
Annual rate of depreciation using the double-declining-balance method
= 2 × [ 100% ÷ (Useful life )]
= 2 × [ 100% ÷ 10 ]
= 2 × 10%
= 20% or 0.20
Therefore,
Depreciation expense for 20X1 = Cost of building × Rate of depreciation
= $140,000 × 0.20
= $28,000
Me is a a personal pronoun just like I, he, she, it, we etc...
Answer: Please see explanation for answers
Explanation:
1. Journal entry to record bad debt on January 31st
Date Account Titles and Explanation Debit Credit
Jan. 31st Allowance for doubtful account $1,600
Account receivables ( Customer C. Green) $1.600
2. Journal entry to record recovery of bad debt on March 9
A) To reinstate Amount previously written off
Date Account Titles and Explanation Debit Credit
March 9 Account receivables ( Customer C. Green) $1,100
Allowance for doubtful account $1,100
B) To record payment of account
Date Account Titles and Explanation Debit Credit
March 9 Cash $1,100
Account receivables( Customer C. Green) $1,100