Answer:
about 904.78
Step-by-step explanation:
πr^2h pi(6)^2 * 8
Answer:
false
Step-by-step explanation:
the answer would be false
Answer: the last second one: 3/4 0.8 94%
Step-by-step explanation:
because 3/4 is smaller than one so it has to go first.
hope it helps :) pls give brainliest
Answer:
See below, please!
Step-by-step explanation:
There are infinite number of ratios equivalent to 3:8 because both numbers can be multiplied by a common number or divided by a common number.
For example, 9:24 would still be equivalent to 3:8 because the common number in our case is 3. See what I mean?
Hope this helped!
