Answer: 3/2
Step-by-step explanation:
the formula to find slope is:
m = rise/run = 
In this case:
m = 3/2 = 
To eliminate the fraction, we multiply by 4
<h3>How to eliminate the fractions?</h3>
The equation is given as:
-3/4m-1/2=2+1/4m
Rewrite properly as:

The denominators of the above fractions are 2 and 4
The LCM of 2 and 4 is 4
So, we multiply through by 4.
This gives
-3m - 2 = 8 + m
Hence, to eliminate the fraction, we multiply by 4
Read more about fractions at:
brainly.com/question/10354322
#SPJ1
Answer:
i) 25
ii) 30:70; 30 out of 70 pencils will be blue.
Step-by-step explanation:
i) 70 - (15+30)= 25 other colors in the bag.
ii) 30:70
Replace x with x+3:
f(x+3) = (x+3)²
which is x² translated 3 units left
Answer:
First choice:

Explanation:
<em>The probability that the first is a man's card and the second, a woman's card</em> is calculated as the product of both probabilities, taking into account the fact that the second time the number of cards in the hat has changed.
In spite of it is said that the cards are drawn at once, since it is stated a specific order for the cards (first is a man's card and the second, a woman's card) you can model the procedure as if the cards were drawn consecutively, instead of at once.
<u>1. Probability that the first is a man's card</u>
- Number of cards in the hat = 20 (the 20 business card)
- Number of man's card in the hat: 10
- Probability = favorable oucomes / possible outcomes = 10/20 = 1/2.
<u />
<u>2. Probability that the second is a woman's card</u>
- Number of cards in the hat = 19 (there is one less card in the hat)
- Number of wonan's card in the hat: 10
- Probability = favorable oucomes / possible outcomes = 10/19.
<u>3. Probability that the first is a man's card and the second, a woman's card</u>
<u />
That is the first choice.