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3 years ago

Write the inequality for the graph

Mathematics

1 answer:

Svetach [21]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

x≤-2

Step-by-step explanation:

it would be that because if the graph is going to the left that means it is less than x and the opposite is for greater than. Now if there is a closed circle that means the sign is equal to hence the line under the sign. So therefore it's x≤-2

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5(3+t)-3(t+1) I don't understand how to do this problem.

shtirl [24]

Okay, just break it up so you're not overwhelming yourself or anything :)
So here, do it in steps-

Let's do 5(3 + t) first:
Distribute the 5, or in non-mathematical terms, just multiply 5 by 3 and t. This will give you 15 + 5t.

Now onto -3(t + 1):
Again, just multiply -3 by t and 1. This will come out to: -3t - 3.

*Note: the 3 is negative because it's "MINUS 3" in the original equation and remember that any number times a negative, if it isn't negative itself, will turn out to be negative.... (aka "-" x "-" = "+" | "+" x "+" = "+" | "-" x "+" = "-")*

ANYWAY
Now just put both answer together and you get:
15 + 5t -3t - 3. You can only add and minus the LIKETERMS (which are the things that are the same) - in this case, the liketerms are 15 and -3 ,,,, AND 5t and -3t.

15 - 3 = 12
5t - 3t = 2t

12 + 2t is your final answer. Hope that helps! :)

7 0

3 years ago

there are 8 people fishing at lake connor: 5 have fishing licenses, and 3 do not. an inspector chooses two of the people at rand

lianna [129]

Answer:

3 have a license, 5 do not have a license

the first choice is 5 out of 8, or 5/8

the second choice is 4 out of 7, or 4/7

(5/8)*(4/7)=20/56=10/28=5/14

another way to look at it is...

how many ways can you choose 2 people out of 8 people ?

8!/2!(8-2)!=8!/2!*6!=8*7/2=56/2=28 ways

how many ways can you choose 2 people out of 5 people ?

5!/2!(5-2)!=5!/2!*3!=5*4/2=20/2=10

10/28=5/14 again

call the 5 people who don't have a license A,B,C,D, and E

how can they be paired together ?

AB,AC,AD,AE,BC,BD,BE,CD,CE, and DE for a total of 10

again 10/28=5/14

5 0

3 years ago

Probability can never be equal to 154Probability can never be equal to 154

Agata [3.3K]

Answer: True

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability of an event occurring lies between zero and one. A probability of 0 means that the event has no chance of happening for example, rolling a die once and getting a number greater than 6 while a probability of 1 means the event will definitely happen for example, getting a number less than 7 when you roll a die once.

Every other probability falls in-between this range so probability can never be 154.

3 0

3 years ago

Why does it take 3 copies of 1/6 to show the same amount as 1 copy of 1/2?

antiseptic1488 [7]

You can solve this by putting the number of copies in the top part of the fraction. If you replace the one in the top part of 1/6 with 3, you get the fraction 3/6. Half of six is three and half of two is one, so both fractions are equal. You can test this be dividing the 3 in the top by 3 and the 6 in the bottom by three. Your result will be 1/2. Although there are three times ad many copies, each copy is three times as small, so it balances out.

6 0

3 years ago

The flag of a country contains an isosceles triangle. (Recap that an isosceles triangle contains two angles with the same measur

sesenic [268]

Answer:

30°, 30° and 120°

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the information given in the question.

let x be the measure of each congruent base angle , then

the third angle = 3x + 30

Sum the 3 angles and equate to 180

3x + 30 + x + x = 180, that is

5x + 30 = 180 ( subtract 30 from both sides )

5x = 150 ( divide both sides by 5 )

x = 30

Thus

The 2 congruent bas angles are each = 30°

The third angle = 3x + 30 = 3(30) + 30 = 90 + 30 = 120°

7 0

3 years ago