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aleksandrvk [35]
3 years ago
13

Ben owns investment A and 1 bond B. The total value of his holdings is $2,800. Bond B has a coupon rate of 8.80 percent, par val

ue of $1000, YTM of 9.40 percent, 14 years until maturity, and semi-annual coupons with the next coupon due in 6 months. Investment A is expected to pay annual cash flows to Ben of X per year forever with the first annual cash flow expected in 1 year from today. The expected return for investment A is 7.91 percent. What is X, the fixed annual cash flow that will be paid forever by investment A?
Business
1 answer:
NeTakaya3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Bond B

PV= ?

FV=$1000

YTM = 9.40/2=4.70

N=14*2= 28

PMT= 8.8%*1000/2=44

Put values in financial calculator

PV=$953.8

Price of Investment A= 2800-953.8=1846.2

Investment A = Perpetuity, formula for perpetuity is Present Value= Cash Flow/Interest Rate

1846.2=Cash flow/0.0791

Cash Flow= 1846.2 *0.0791

=$146.03

Explanation:

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3 years ago
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The Work in Process Inventory account of a manufacturing company has a $11,625 debit balance. The company applies overhead using
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Answer:

The multiple choices are given below:

217%.

148%.

68%.

147%.

46%.

The correct option is 217%

Explanation:

Overhead applied can be  determined using the  below formula total cost formula:

The total cost of work-in-process inventory=direct material cost+direct labor cost+overhead applied

total cost of work-in-process is $11,625

direct material cost is $3,700

direct labor cost is $2,500

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Answer:

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