1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
mylen [45]
4 years ago
8

Are the triangles congruent

Mathematics
1 answer:
Eduardwww [97]4 years ago
8 0
Triangles can only be congruent when if all sides are the same 

You might be interested in
Angles R and S are vertical angles. Angle R has a measure of (4x+20). Angle S had a measure of 84. What is the value of x?
Salsk061 [2.6K]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

You set both sides equal to 180

4x + 20 + 84 = 180

4x = 76

x= 19

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
hmmm. i’ve been stuck for a while on this question. i am NOT cheating on a test, this is a routine practice assignment that isn’
S_A_V [24]

Answer:

Well its not A. or D.  

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Suppose you have an experiment where you flip a coin three times. You then count the number of heads. a.)State the random variab
WITCHER [35]

Answer:

a) X=number of heads observed when flipped the coin 3 times

b) the probability distribution is

P(X=x) = 3/4 * (1/[(3-x)!*x!)])

or

P(X)=1/8 for x=0 and x=3 and P(X)=3/8 for x=1 and x=2

Step-by-step explanation:

the random variable will be X=number of heads observed when flipped the coin 3 times . Since the result from each flip is independent of the others , then X has a binomial probability distribution , such that

P(X=x)= n!/[(n-x)!*x!)*p^x * (1-p)^(n-x)

where

n= number of times the coin is flipped = 3

p= probability of getting heads in a flip of the coin = 1/2 (assuming that the coin is fair)

therefore

P(X=x)= 3!/[(3-x)!*x!)*(1/2)^(3-x) * (1/2)^x = 3!/[(3-x)!*x!) * (1/2)³ = 3/4 * (1/[(3-x)!*x!)])

P(X=x)= 3/4 * (1/[(3-x)!*x!)])   , for x=[0,1,2,3]

for x=0 and x=3 → P(X)=3/4 * (1/[3!*0!)]) = 1/8

for x=1 and x=2 → P(X)=3/4 * (1/[2!*1!)]) = 3/8

we can verify that is correct since the sum of all the probabilities from x=0 to x=3 is  1/8 +  3/8+ 3/8+ 1/8 = 1

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Realy easy question for soo many points
Art [367]

Answer: 129

Step-by-step explanation:

It is 129 because y is less than 70 so the greatest possible value for that is 69 and z is less than or equal to 60 so 69 + 60 =129

4 0
4 years ago
Sofia received a 3,000 car loan. She plans on paying off the loan in 2 years. At the end of 2 years, Sofia will have paid $450 i
poizon [28]
(So “/” will basically mean divide)
450/3000=0.15
0.15*100=15% rate
3 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • One common factor of two numbers is 40. Another common factor is 10. If both numbers are less than 100, what are the two numbers
    9·1 answer
  • A house painting company charges $376 plus $12 per hour. Another company $280 plus $15 per hour. A. how long is a job for which
    13·1 answer
  • Please HELP ASAP<br> question is in the photo below
    6·1 answer
  • What is 6/10 in simplest form?
    9·2 answers
  • What is greater 20.4 or 0.75
    10·2 answers
  • What is the probability of rolling a five on a six sided die and then rolling a two
    9·2 answers
  • What is the scale factor?
    15·1 answer
  • Help with this quistion
    9·1 answer
  • Hey guys can u help me i took like 3 hours to know the answer but i cant get it pls help me thank you
    14·1 answer
  • The latitude on a map that represents x-axis is the_____________<br><br> (not multiple choice)
    6·2 answers
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!