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solmaris [256]
3 years ago
7

A study was conducted looking at the association between the number of polyps in the colon and mean grams of fiber consumed per

day based on a standard food frequency questionnaire. The Pearson correlation coefficient was 0.9 with a p-value of 0.003 and the Spearman correlation coefficient was 0.28 with a p-value of 0.049. Which form of correlation would be more appropriate to report and why?
Mathematics
1 answer:
rewona [7]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

C) The Spearman correlation results should be reported because at least one of the variables does not meet the distribution assumption required to use Pearson correlation.

Explanation:

The following multiple choice responses are provided to complete the question:

A) The Pearson correlation results should be reported because it shows a stronger correlation with a smaller p-value (more significant).

B) The Pearson correlation results should be reported because the two variables are normally distributed.

C) The Spearman correlation results should be reported because at least one of the variables does not meet the distribution assumption required to use Pearson correlation.

D) The Spearman correlation results should be reported because the p-value is closer to 0.0556.

Further Explanation:

A count variable is discrete because it consists of non-negative integers. The number of polyps variable is therefore a count variable and will most likely not be normally distributed.  Normality of variables is one of the assumptions required to use Pearson correlation, however, Spearman's correlation does not rest upon an assumption of normality. Therefore, the Spearman correlation would be more appropriate to report because at least one of the variables does not meet the distribution assumption required to use Pearson correlation.

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HeyItsEihab
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2 years ago
There are 10 marbles in the bag. There are two purple marbles, 3 red marbles and 5 yellow marbles. You will pick a marble three
Evgen [1.6K]

Answer:

30/1000

Step-by-step explanation:

red has a chance of 3/10

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yellow has a chance of 5/10

for probability, multiply the denominators together, and the numerators together

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So the probability of picking red, then purple, and then yellow with replacement is 30 of 1000

Hope this helps!

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3 years ago
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What property is occurring in the following example? 11.5 + (- 11.5) = 0
kramer

Answer: A property occurring in the example 11.5 + (-11.5) = 0, is additive inverse.

Step-by-step explanation:

A property where sum of any number and its inverse is equal to zero is called additive inverse property.

For example, 11.5 + (-11.5) = 0

Here, 11.5 is the number and its inverse is (-11.5). The sum of both these is equal to zero. Hence, it shows a property of additive inverse.

Thus, we can conclude that property occurring in the example 11.5 + (-11.5) = 0, is additive inverse.

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3 years ago
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