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3 years ago

Offering false statements in a contract is fraud in the inception. True False

Business

2 answers:

seropon [69]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

Explanation:

True

Nataly [62]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

true

Explanation:

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Kirsty is going to open a jewellery business. which of the following production methods should she use job , batch or flow produ

My name is Ann [436]

Flow production would be my guess

4 0

2 years ago

BrewCo sells coffeemakers for $120 each. The firm currently has variable costs per unit of $65. If BrewCo is able to reduce its

PolarNik [594]

Answer:

C. increase by about 6 percent.

Explanation:

Since,

$\text{Contribution margin ratio}=\frac{\text{Sales-Variable expenses}}{\text{Sales}}$

Sales = $ 120,

Original expenses = $ 65

Thus, contribution margin ratio = $\frac{120-65}{120}=\frac{55}{120}=0.4583\approx 0.46$

New expenses = $ 58,

Thus, contribution margin ratio = $\frac{120-58}{120} = \frac{62}{120}=0.5166\approx 0.52$

∵ 52 - 46 = 6,

Hence, the CMR is increased by 6%.

OPTION C is correct.

5 0

3 years ago

Both a call and a put currently are traded on stock XYZ; both have strike prices of $45 and expirations of 6 months.

pychu [463]

Answer:

a. Profit to an investor who buys call for $4

a. $ -4

b. $ -4

c. $ -4

d. $ 1

e. $ 6

b. Profit to an investor who buys call for $6.5

a. $1.5

b. $6.5

c. $ -1.5

d. $ -3.5

e. $ -8.5

Explanation:

The call option is a derivative in which an investor buys an option to buy the asset at a certain price. The value of the call option is determined by maturity. The buyer of call option can buy an asset at a strike price before expiration date.

If the investor buys the call option for $4 then the $4 is an expense for the investor. The value of call will be -4 unless the stock price is above $50.

If the investor buys the call option for $6.5 then the $6.5 is an expense for the investor. The value of call will be -6.5 unless the stock price is below $50.

6 0

2 years ago

A machine with a cost of $75,000 has an estimated residual value of $5,000 and an estimated life of 4 years or 18,000 hours. Wha

allochka39001 [22]

Answer:

The answer is: $18, 750

Explanation:

The double-declining-balance(DDB) method entails computing depreciation of an asset at an accelerated rate. This method is employed when the asset loses value quickly and is expected to generate more revenue at the earlier stages of its useful life. The depreciation is higher at the beginning and lower close to the end of the asset's useful life. The depreciation is computed as follows:

Depreciation = 2 * straight line depreciation percentage * Book value at the beginning of the period

Machine cost: $75, 000

Residual Value: $5, 000

Estimated Life: 4 years/18, 000 hours

Straight line depreciation percentage : 100/4 = 25%

Depreciation Year 1 on DDB = 2 * 25% * $75, 000

= $37, 500

Depreciation Year 2 on DDB = 2 * 25% * ($75, 000 -$37, 500)

= $18, 750

4 0

2 years ago

Suppose the yield on short-term government securities (perceived to be risk-free) is about 4%. Suppose also that the expected re

iogann1982 [59]

Answer: 10%

Explanation:

The Capital Asset Pricing Model or CAPM for short can be used to calculate expected return in the following manner,

Expected return = Rf+B(Rm-Rf)

Rf = Risk free rate

B = Beta

Rm= Market return.

Plugging the figures in we have

Expected return = Rf+B(Rm-Rf)

= 0.04 + 1(0.1 - 0.04)

= 0.1

= 10%

5 0

3 years ago