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Kruka [31]
3 years ago
13

An annual has 15 years to maturity. It has a coupon rate of 5%, a YTM of 8%. Fill in the cells highlighted in yellow, and aswer

the questions in the D2L Quiz. You will have 4 attempts to complete this quiz. To start with, assume that interest rates in the market just increased by 2% (this change is entered in cell B28). Hint: Do not enter any numbers manually in any of the cells; always refer to another cell where the number is entered. For example, instead of typing 5% manually, refer to cell B1.
Business
1 answer:
grin007 [14]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Market value at 8% YTM  $ 743.2156

at 10% YTM                       $ 619.6960

Explanation:

Assuming the face value is 1,000 as common outstanding American company's bonds:

Market value under the current scenario:

<u>Present value of the coupon payment:</u>

<u />

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

Coupon: $1,000 x 5% =  50

time 15 years

rate 0.08

50 \times \frac{1-(1+0.08)^{-15} }{0.08} = PV\\

PV $427.9739

<u>Present Value of the Maturity</u>

<u />

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity   1,000.00

time   15.00

rate  0.08

\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.08)^{15} } = PV  

PV   315.24

PV c $427.9739

PV m  $315.2417

Total $743.2156

If the interest rate in the market increaseby 2% then investor will only trade the bonds to get a yield 2% higher that is 10% so we recalculate the new price:

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 50.000

time 15

rate 0.1

50 \times \frac{1-(1+0.1)^{-15} }{0.1} = PV\\

PV $380.3040

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity   1,000.00

time   15.00

rate  0.1

\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.1)^{15} } = PV  

PV   239.39

PV c $380.3040

PV m  $239.3920

Total $619.6960

Giving a lower price than before

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On January 1, 2017, Shay issues $330,000 of 12%, 15-year bonds at a price of 97.00. Six years later, on January 1, 2023, Shay re
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Answer and Explanation:

As per the data given in the question,  Journal entries are as follows:

Jan 1  

         Bonds payable A/C Dr. $66,000

          Loss on bonds' redemption A/c Dr. $4,158

          To Discount on bonds payable A/c $1,188

                         ($5,940*20%)

          To Cash A/c $68,970

                    ($66,000*104.5%)

          (To record retirements of bonds before maturity)

Computation

Discount on bonds = $330,000 × 3% = $9,900

Amortized bond discount = $9,900 ÷ 15 × 6  

= $3,960

Unamortized bond discount = $9,900 - $3,960  

= $5,940

Face value of bonds retired = $330,000 × 20%

= $66,000

7 0
3 years ago
1. Managed care has caused the U.S. health care system to:
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B will be the best answer
5 0
4 years ago
The GDP per capita of a country is lower than that of france. if the GDP per capita of the country is adjusted for PPP, the coun
o-na [289]

Answer:

D. The cost of living in the country is lower than that of France

Explanation:

PPP or Purchasing Power Parity is a measure of the cost of living in different countries. When GDP Per Capita is computed accounting for PPP, significant differences can show up between this measure and Nominal GDP Per Capita, this is because of differences in the cost of living among countries.

If the GDP Per Capita Nominal of a country is lower than that of France, it means that measured by US Dollars, the other country produces less output per person than France. However, if the GDP Per Capita PPP of the same country is higher than that of France, it means that even if output is less, people in the other country can buy more things with less income than people in France. (Remember than when calculating GDP, output is the same as income).

4 0
4 years ago
The Republic of Livonia has an adult population of 100 million; 60% of Livonia's population is employed, and 10% of the people a
lisov135 [29]

Answer:

3 out of every 5 people

Explanation:

Labor force = 60% of 100 M = 60M

Labor force participation rate = Labor force / Total Population

= 60,000,000 / 100,000,000

= 6/10 = 3/5

The rate therefore is :

3 out of every 5 people are in the labor force

7 0
3 years ago
a stock broker allocated $100,000 to an account earning 4% per year compounded continuously. if no withdrawals are made, how muc
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$100,000 was allocated by a stockbroker to a portfolio yielding 4% annually compounded. If no withdrawals are taken, there will be $117,352 left in the account after four years.

Given a certain rate of return, present value (PV) is the current value of a future financial asset or stream of cash flows. A discount rate or the interest rate that could be obtained through investment is applied to the future value to get the present value.

According to the continuously compounded interest formula,

FV = PV e^{it}

Here,

Present Investment Value, or PV

the interest rate, I

T = time in years

So,

In light of the specified

PV = $ 100,000

I = 4% = 0.04

t = 4 years

Hence

FV stands for "Final Investment Value"

Then,

FV = 100,000 * e⁰.⁰⁴ˣ⁴

FV = 100,000*e⁰.¹⁶

FV = 100,000 * 1.173510871

FV = 117351.0871

FV = 117351

Hence

The balance in the account after four years was = $117,352

To know more about Present Value, refer to this link:

brainly.com/question/1212987

#SPJ4

7 0
1 year ago
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