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jeka94
3 years ago
13

HELP PLEASE AND EXPLAIN PLEASE!!!!!

Mathematics
1 answer:
Oliga [24]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Cara is correct because there is a no fixed answer sign for the cara's answer and by probability you will observe that cara isnt sure that her answer is + or - but most probably the sign of her answer is positive but not surely so it is plus minus 17

You might be interested in
What is the area of this figure?
nalin [4]

Answer:

<em>290.5 square miles</em>

Step-by-step explanation:

Consider splitting this figure into two mini rectangles and a triangle, each of given lengths;

Dimensions of Rectangle 1 - Height ; 5 mi, Length ; 7 mi,\\Area of Rectangle 1 - Height * Length = 5 mi * 7 mi = 35 mi^2\\\\Dimensions of Rectangle 2 - Height ; 18 mi, Length ; 8 mi,\\Area of Rectangle 2 - Height * Length = 23 mi * 8 mi = 184 mi^2\\\\Dimensions of Mini Right Triangle - Height ; 11 mi, Base ; 8 + 5 = 13 mi,\\Area of Mini Right Triangle - 1 / 2 * Base * Height = 1 / 2 * 13 mi * 11 mi = 71.5 mi^2,\\\\Area of Figure = 35 mi^2 + 184 mi^2 + 71.5 mi^2 = 290.5 square miles

<em>Solution; 290.5 square miles</em>

4 0
3 years ago
If 3*2=12,3*5=24and 15-6=3then 16/2=?<br>a.4<br>b.6<br>c.8<br>d.12​
ser-zykov [4K]

Answer:

16 divided by 2 equals C which is 8.

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
y=−2x+4 Complete the missing value in the solution to the equation. ( −2) Need it quick no explanation need.
Elodia [21]

Answer:

1 is missing value..... .....

3 0
2 years ago
The proportion of brown M&amp;M's in a milk chocolate packet is approximately 14%. Suppose a package of M&amp;M's typically cont
marshall27 [118]

Answer:

Kindly check explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the scenario above :

A) State the random variable.

The random variable is the p opoertion of brown M&M's in a milk chocolate packet.

B.) Argue that this is a binomial experiment.

Each trial is independent for a total number of 52 trials with a set probability of success at 0.14

C) probability that 6 M&M's are brown:.

P(x) = nCx * p^x * (1-p)^(n-x)

p = 0.14 ; (1 - p) = 0.86 ; n = 52 ; x = 6

P(x = 6) = 52C6 × 0.14^6 × 0.86^46

= 20358520 × 0.00000752954 × 0.00097035078

= 0.1487

D) P(x =25)

P(x = 25) = 52C25 × 0.14^25 × 0.86^27

= 477551179875952 × 449.987958058*10^(-24) × 0.01703955245

= 0.00000000366

E) P(x = 52)

P(x = 52) = 52C52 × 0.14^52 × 0.86^0

= 1 × 3968.78758299*10^(-48) × 1

= 3968.78758299*10^(-48)

F) yes it would be unusual, because such probability is extremely low. However, if a huge or substantial number of trials such may occur

3 0
3 years ago
Evaluate the following expression. 3^-2
Crazy boy [7]

Answer: The simplified form is \frac{1}{9}

Step-by-step explanation:

Since we have given that

3^{-2}

As we know the  "Exponential law":

a^{-1}=\frac{1}{a^m}

So, it becomes

3^{-2}=\frac{1}{3^2}

Now, at last it becomes,

3^{-2}=\frac{1}{3\times 3}=\frac{1}{9}

Hence, the simplified form is \frac{1}{9}

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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