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Nataly_w [17]
3 years ago
15

Is 40 inch or 100 cm bigger

Mathematics
2 answers:
oksian1 [2.3K]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

40 inch

Step-by-step explanation:

1 inch=2.54cm

so 40 inch= 101.6 cm

kifflom [539]3 years ago
4 0
40 inches is bigger
40 inches into feet = 3.3
100 cm into feet = 3.2
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Adam borrowed $16,780 at 12.5 percent for 10 years. What is his monthly payment?
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Step-by-step explanation:

16,780/100=167.8

167.8 x 1.465= 245.827

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If the ratio of circles to triangles you will only need to write ratios in one form of your choice
harina [27]

Answer:

Ratio of area of circles: = πr2 :πc2 = πr2 :π r2 4 = 4 :1. 1. The small equilateral triangle is rotated through 60° about O, the center of the circle. The arm of the rotation is the radius of the circle

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
The table below represents a linear function in the equation represents a function. table numbers are X: -1,0,1. f(x): -3,0,3. G
Alexxx [7]
A)
SLOPE OF f(x)
To find the slope of f(x) we pick two points on the function and use the slope formula. Each point can be written (x, f(x) ) so we are given three points in the table. These are: (-1, -3) , (0,0) and (1,3). We can also refer to the points as (x,y). We call one of the points ( x_{1} , y_{1} ) and another ( x_{2} , y_{2} ). It doesn't matter which two points we use, we will always get the same slope. I suggest we use (0,0) as one of the points since zeros are easy to work with.

Let's pick as follows:
( x_{1} , y_{1} )= (0.0)
( x_{2} , y_{2} )= (1.3)

The slope formula is: m= \frac{y_{2} - y_{1} }{ x_{2}- x_{1}  }
We now substitute the values we got from the points to obtain.
m= \frac{3-0}{ 1-0 } = \frac{3}{1}=3

The slope of f(x) = 3

SLOPE OF g(x)
The equation of a line is y=mx+b where m is the slope and b is the y intercept. Since g(x) is given in this form, the number in front of the x is the slope and the number by itself is the y-intercept.

That is, since g(x)=7x+2 the slope is 7 and the y-intercept is 2.

The slope of g(x) = 2

B)
Y-INTERCEPT OF g(x)
From the work in part a we know the y-intercept of g(x) is 2.

Y-INTERCEPT OF f(x)
The y-intercept is the y-coordinate of the point where the line crosses the y-axis. This point will always have an x-coordinate of 0 which is why we need only identify the y-coordinate. Since you are given the point (0,0) which has an x-coordinate of 0 this must be the point where the line crosses the y-axis. Since the point also has a y-coordinate of 0, it's y-intercept is 0

So the function g(x) has the greater y-intercept
5 0
3 years ago
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