Answer:
1
Step-by-step explanation:
PEMDAS
6/ 2(1+2)
6 divided by 2 (3)
multiply 2(3) =6
6/6 =1
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Rn(x) →0
f(x) = 10/x
a = -2
Taylor series for the function <em>f </em>at the number a is:
............ equation (1)
Now we will find the function <em>f </em> and all derivatives of the function <em>f</em> at a = -2
f(x) = 10/x f(-2) = 10/-2
f'(x) = -10/x² f'(-2) = -10/(-2)²
f"(x) = -10.2/x³ f"(-2) = -10.2/(-2)³
f"'(x) = -10.2.3/x⁴ f'"(-2) = -10.2.3/(-2)⁴
f""(x) = -10.2.3.4/x⁵ f""(-2) = -10.2.3.4/(-2)⁵
∴ The Taylor series for the function <em>f</em> at a = -4 means that we substitute the value of each function into equation (1)
So, we get 
Or
There are no choices so I’m going to assume this is simplification.
Answer:
3/4 —> this is the most simplified version of that fraction.
Explanation:
48/64 can be divided by multiple things to gain fractions. You could divide it by 2 repeatedly until arriving to a fraction wherein you couldn’t split anymore.
Ex.) 48/64 = 24/32 = 12/16 = 6/8 = 3/4
All of the above answers are equivalent to 48/64.
An easier way to reach the final answer of 3/4 would be to find the greatest common factor of 48/64. You can divide both by 16 and then get to 3/4.
Hope this helps!
Answer:
-3
Step-by-step explanation:
using pemdas, we first divide -18 by 6 to get -3. next, we subtract -3 from -6: -6-(-3)=-6+3=-3
Answer:
1647.20
Step-by-step explanation:
You do .58 times 28,400. Then you move the decimal place over 1 place to the left. Because it is already 5.8%
