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EastWind [94]
3 years ago
5

The closeness of measured values to other measured values is called

Mathematics
2 answers:
natulia [17]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

precision

Step-by-step explanation:

Accuracy is also correct if on e d g e n u i t y use precision

Tomtit [17]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The correct answer is precision

Step-by-step explanation:

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Help it's timed.
densk [106]

98 - x² = 0

x² = 98

x = ±√98

Lets factor 98

98 | 2

49 | 7

7 | 7

1

So, 98 = 2 . 7 . 7 = 2 . 7²

x = ±√2.7²

x = ±7√2

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Write 24 as a prime factors what is the answer
djverab [1.8K]
Write a number as prime factors means to write the number as a product of numbers, all of which are prime. We start by checking whether the number is divisible by prime numbers, starting from the smallest prime number,2.

let's divide 24 into its factors.

first, it's even, so it must divide by 2

24=2*12

12 is also even, so it must divide by 2:


24=2*12=2*2*6

6 is also even, so it must divide by 2:


24=2*12=2*2*6=2*2*2*3

3 is not even, but it's a prime number.

so the solution is
2*2*2*3



7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A study was conducted to determine whether magnets were effective in treating pain. The values represent measurements of pain us
Zanzabum

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Hello!

The objective of the study is to determine whether the magnets are effective in treating pain. For these two independent groups of individuals with equal affections were randomly sampled, one was treated with magnets and the other group of individuals, call it control group, was treated with a placebo treatment.

The information for both samples is:

X₁: pain measurement using a visual analog scale after the individual received magnet treatments.

X₁~N(μ₁;σ₁²)

n₁= 20

X[bar]₁= 0.46

S₁= 0.93

X₂: pain measurement using a visual analog scale of an individual of the control groups.

X₂~N(μ₂;σ₂²)

n₂= 20

X[bar]₂= 0.41

S₂= 1.26

The claim is that the pain reductions of the control group have more variation than the pain reductions of the target group. If it's so then we could suspect that the population variance of the control group, σ₂², will be greater than the population variance of the magnet group, σ₁².

To test the relationship between these two population variances you have to conduct a variance ratio test using the Snedecors F statistic.

The hypotheses are:

H₀: σ₂² ≤ σ₁²

H₁: σ₂² > σ₁²

α: 0.05

F= (\frac{S_2^2}{S_1^2}) * (\frac{Sigma_2^2}{Sigma_1^2} )~~ F_{(n_2-1);(n_1-1)}

This hypothesis test is one-tailed to the right, there is only one critical value:

F_{(n_2-1);(n_1-1); 1 - \alpha } = F_{19;19; 0.95}= 2.17

The decision rule for the test is:

If F_{H_0} ≥ 2.17, then the decision is to reject the null hypothesis.

If F_{H_0} < 2.17, then the decision is to not reject the null hypothesis.

F_{H_0}= \frac{S_2^2}{S_1^2}*\frac{Sigma_2^2}{Sigma_1^2}  = \frac{(1.26)^2}{(0.93)^2} * 1

F_{H_0} = 1.835 = 1.84

Since the calculated value of F is less than the critical value, the decision is to reject the null hypothesis. So using a 5% significance level the decision is to not reject the null hypothesis, you can conclude that the population variance of the pain reduction of the control group is less or equal than the population variance of the pain reduction on individuals treated with magnets.

I hope it helps!

3 0
3 years ago
Two dice are rolled. Determine the probability of the following: rolling a 6 or doubles
gtnhenbr [62]

Answer as an exact fraction = 5/18

Answer as an approximate decimal = 0.2778

Answer as an approximate percentage = 27.78%

============================================================

Explanation:

x = result of the first die

y = result of the second die

(x,y) paired together shows the results of both dice at the same time.

Something like (x,y) = (4,2) means we got 4 on the first die and 2 on the second die.

--------

Let's list the ways of rolling a 6

  • (1,5)
  • (2,4)
  • (3,3)
  • (4,2)
  • (5,1)

There are 5 ways to roll a 6. Each pair listed has the property x+y = 6.

--------

List all the ways of getting doubles

  • (1,1)
  • (2,2)
  • (3,3)
  • (4,4)
  • (5,5)
  • (6,6)

There are 6 ways to roll doubles. Each pair mentioned has x = y.

--------

We have 5+6 = 11 items listed above. However, there are only 10 unique pairs though because (3,3) was listed twice. So we could say 5+6-1 = 11-1 = 10.

This is out of 6*6 = 36 different ways to roll the two dice. The probability is therefore 10/36 = 5/18.

Using a calculator, 5/18 = 0.2778 = 27.78%

7 0
3 years ago
What is 475% of 9.2?
coldgirl [10]
To find this, multiply 9.2 by the decimal form of the percent (4.75). The answer is 43.7
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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