3 years ago

Cot(pi/2)=1-1undefined0

Mathematics

2 answers:

devlian [24]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

Option D

Step-by-step explanation:

We have to find the value of cot $(\frac{\pi}{2})$

Since cot θ = $\frac{1}{tan\theta}$

and θ = $\frac{\pi}{2}$

So cot $cot(\frac{\pi}{2})=\frac{1}{tan(\frac{\pi}{2})}$

= $\frac{1}{(\frac{1}{0})}$

= 0

Therefore, answer will be option D), 0.

GenaCL600 [577]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

the answer is zeroo

Step-by-step explanation:

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If a baseball player get a hit in 31% of his at-bats, what is the probability that he will

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