50%. Each coin has a 50% chance on landing on head and a 50% chance of landont on tails.
Answer:
$45.50
Step-by-step explanation:
1. $65.00 ÷ 100 = 0.65
2. 0.65 x 30 = $19.50
3. $65.00 - $19.50 = $45.50
Answer:
She did not add 5 to 30. ... Mona subtracted 5 where she should have divided 5.
Step-by-step explanation:
Read the problem and answer choices. You want to get from ABCD to EFGH, so you need to figure out how to do that with reflection, translation, and dilation—in that order.
The reflection part is fairly easy. ABC is a bottom-to-top order, and EFG is a top-to-bottom order, so the reflection is one that changes top to bottom. It must be reflection across a horizontal line. The only horizontal line offered in the answer choices is the x-axis. Selection B is indicated right away.
The dimensions of EFGH are 3 times those of ABCD, so the dilation scale factor is 3. This means that prior to dilation, the point H (for example), now at (-12, -3) would have been at (-4, -1), a factor of 3 closer to the origin. H corresponds to D in the original figure, which would be located at (0, -2) after reflection across the x-axis.
So, the translation from (0, -2) to (-4, -1) is 4 units left (0 to -4) and 1 unit up (-2 to -1).
The appropriate choice and fill-in would be ...
... <em>B. Reflection across the x-axis, translation </em><em>4</em><em> units left and </em><em>1</em><em> unit up, dilation with center (0, 0) and scale factor </em><em>3</em><em>.</em>
_____
You can check to see that these transformations also map the other points appropriately. They do.
Step-by-step explanation:
$450×15%= D (downpayment)
$450-D= B (balance)
B÷18= MB (monthly balance)
MB ×12%= I (interest)
MB+I= MI (monthly installment)
(MI×18)+D= Total Paid
...and whomever you're doing the work for, see if they'll give you extra credit for correcting their TWICE misspelled word.
Catch is...YOU have to find it! (:
