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nadezda [96]
3 years ago
12

Complete the coordinate table for the given equation.

Mathematics
1 answer:
frozen [14]3 years ago
4 0
X=-.25,-.5,-1,1,.5,.25
y=1,2,4,-4,-2,-1
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It costs 11$ for 15 granola bars.
Jet001 [13]

Answer:

Each granola bar costs $0.73.

Step-by-step explanation:

11/15 = 0.73

5 0
3 years ago
Imani and Adam each improved their yards by planting grass sod and geraniums. They bought their supplies from the same store. Im
irina [24]

Answer: skrt skrt



Step-by-step explanation:


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3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which of these sets of ordered pairs below does not represent a function?
Step2247 [10]

Answer:

0,0

Step-by-step explanation:

The function set is empty

7 0
3 years ago
Let the smallest of 4 consecutive odd numbers be 2 n + 1 , where n is an integer. Show, using algebra, that the sum of any 4 con
andrey2020 [161]

Answer:

Expression is 8(n+2)

Step-by-step explanation:

smallest of 4 consecutive odd numbers =2n + 1

consecutive odd integers are found by adding 2 to the any given odd numbers

Thus, 2nd consecutive odd integers  = 2n + 1 + 2 = 2n + 3

3rd consecutive odd integers  = 2n + 3 + 2 = 2n + 5

2nd consecutive odd integers  = 2n + 5 + 2 = 2n + 7

Thus, 4 consecutive odd integers are

2n + 1 ,2n + 3,2n + 5,2n + 7

sum of these numbers are = 2n + 1 +2n + 3 + 2n + 5+2n + 7 = 8n+16

sum of these numbers are = 8(n+2)

Thus, we see that the sum of numbers are 8(n+2)

As, 8 is common for n+2, whatever is value of n, the number will be multiple of 8 .

thus expression is 8(n+2)

7 0
3 years ago
A study conducted at a certain high school shows that 72% of its graduates enroll at a college. Find the probability that among
mixas84 [53]

Answer:

P(X \geq 1) =1-P(X

And we can use the probability mass function and we got:

P(X=0)=(4C0)(0.72)^0 (1-0.72)^{4-0}=0.00615

And replacing we got:

P(X \geq 1) = 1-0.00615 = 0.99385

Step-by-step explanation:

Let X the random variable of interest "number of graduates who enroll in college", on this case we now that:  

X \sim Binom(n=4, p=0.72)  

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:  

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}  

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:  

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}  

We want to find the following probability:

P(X \geq 1)

And we can use the complement rule and we got:

P(X \geq 1) =1-P(X

And we can use the probability mass function and we got:

P(X=0)=(4C0)(0.72)^0 (1-0.72)^{4-0}=0.00615

And replacing we got:

P(X \geq 1) = 1-0.00615 = 0.99385

5 0
3 years ago
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