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Serhud [2]
3 years ago
7

Crich Corporation uses direct labor-hours in its predetermined overhead rate. At the beginning of the year, the estimated direct

labor-hours were 21,980 hours and the total estimated manufacturing overhead was $540,708. At the end of the year, actual direct labor-hours for the year were 21,950 hours and the actual manufacturing overhead for the year was $540,708. Overhead at the end of the year was: (Round your intermediate calculations to 2 decimal places.)
Business
1 answer:
Zepler [3.9K]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

$738 Under applied

Explanation:

Calculation for Overhead at the end of the year

First step is to calculate for the POR using this formula

POR=Total estimated manufacturing overhead/Estimated direct labor-hours

Let plug in the formula

POR=$540,708/21,980 hours

POR=$24.6/DLH

Second step is to Calculate for the applied Overhead using this formula

Applied overhead =Actual direct labor-hours ×POR

Let plug in the formula

Applied overhead =21,950 hours×$24.6/DLH

Applied overhead=$539,970

The last step is to for the Overhead at the end of the year

Using this formula

Ending Overhead =Actual manufacturing overhead -Applied overhead

Let plug in the formula

Ending overhead =$540,708-$539,970

Ending overhead=$738 Under applied

Therefore the Overhead at the end of the year will be $738 Under applied due to the debit balance.

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A situation known as a "market failure" occurs when the market itself is unable to efficiently distribute resources in a way that balances social costs and benefits.

Market failure refers to a situation where there is an inefficient allocation of products and services on the open market. The individual incentives for rational behavior do not result in rational outcomes for the collective in a market failure.

In other words, each person chooses what is best for themselves, but those choices end up being bad for the collective. This can occasionally be demonstrated in conventional microeconomics as a steady-state disequilibrium condition.

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8 0
1 year ago
Compensating balances
Airida [17]

Answer:

The correct answer is D

Explanation:

Compensating balance is the balance which is to be minimum amount that is to maintained or kept in the bank account, so that could be used to offset the cost incurred by the bank for setting up the loan.

It is that balance which is not available for the company to use and might be needed to disclose in the notes of the borrower in the financial statements.

So, it is a specific kind of collateral, allow bank to monitor payment practice of firms and require to have a minimum amount that borrower need to keep in the checking account.

8 0
3 years ago
Allen Construction purchased a crane 6 years ago for $130,000. They need a crane of this capacity for the next 5 years. Normal o
Korvikt [17]

Answer:

<u>For retaining of Old Machine Equipment</u>

Price of old equipment 3 yrs ago = $130,000

O & M cost per year = $35,000

Using the Cash flow approach

End of year   Cash flow 1   Old equipment

0                            $0            Initial Cash flow

1                         -$35,000     O & M cost per year

2                        -$35,000     O & M cost per year

3                        -$35,000     O & M cost per year

4                        -$35,000     O & M cost per year

5                        -$35,000     O & M cost per year

Hence, Annual worth = Initial cash flow + Annual cost

Annual worth = 0 - $35,000

Annual worth = -$35,000

<u>For buying of new equipment</u>

Cost of buying new crane = $150,000

Market value of old crane = $40,000

Time = 5 years

O & M cost per year = $8,000

Salvage value = $55,000

MARR = 20%

Using the Cash flow approach

End of year   Cash flow 1   New equipment

0                         $110,000    -$150,000 + $40,000

1                         -$8,000     O & M cost per year

2                        -$8,000     O & M cost per year

3                        -$8,000     O & M cost per year

4                        -$8,000     O & M cost per year

5                        $47,000     -$8,000 + $55,000

Annual worth = Initial cash flow + Annual cost + Salvage value

Annual worth = -$110,000(A/P 20%,5) - $8,000 + $55,000(A/P 20%,5)

Annual worth = -$110,000*(0.334) - $8,000 + $55,000*(0.134)

Annual worth = -$36,781.77 - $8,000 + $7,390.88

Annual worth = -$37,908.88

Conclusion: We should retain the old machine as it is more favorable than purchase of new equipment

5 0
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7 0
3 years ago
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Musya8 [376]

Answer:

Explanation:

The journal entry is shown below:

Warranty expense A/c Dr $25,500

        To Estimated warranty liability $25,500

(Being the estimated warranty provision is recorded)

The computation is shown below:

= Merchandise sale value × given percentage

= $850,000 × 3%

= $25,500

Simply we debited the warranty expense and credited the estimated warranty liability so that the correct posting can be done.

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