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Nookie1986 [14]
3 years ago
14

It takes an hour to mow a lawn using a mower with blades 14 inches wide. How long would it take using a mower with blades 12 inc

hes wide?​
Mathematics
1 answer:
Ganezh [65]3 years ago
5 0

Answer: It would take 40 minutes to mow a lawn with a mower containing 12-inch wide blades.

Step-by-step explanation:

You might be interested in
What is the range of F(x)=72x-x^2
Marianna [84]

Answer:

Range of F(x) = (-∞ ,72).

Step-by-step explanation:

Range of the function F(x) means the set of values which are taken by the function along its domain.

F(x) = 72 - x^{2}

Since coefficient of x^{2} is negative on the right side ,

Maximum value of F(x) will come at x = 0.

Which is, F(0) = 72.

Now, as x increases , F(x) decreases , when x will reach infinity ,

F(x) will be reaching negative of infinity .

Thus, F(x) is ranging from -∞ to 72 .

Range of F(x) = (-∞ ,72).

3 0
3 years ago
A couple intends to have two children, and suppose that approximately 52% of births are male and 48% are female.
Pachacha [2.7K]

a) Probability of both being males is 27%

b) Probability of both being females is 23%

c) Probability of having exactly one male and one female is 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

a)

The probability that the birth is a male can be written as

p(m) = 0.52 (which corresponds to 52%)

While the probability that the birth is a female can be written as

p(f) = 0.48 (which corresponds to 48%)

Here we want to calculate the probability that over  2 births, both are male. Since the two births are two independent events (the probability of the 2nd to be a male  does not depend on the fact that the 1st one is a male), then the probability of both being males is given by the product of the individual probabilities:

p(mm)=p(m)\cdot p(m)

And substituting, we find

p(mm)=0.52\cdot 0.52 = 0.27

So, 27%.

b)

In this case, we want to find the probability that both children are female, so the probability

p(ff)

As in the previous case, the probability of the 2nd child to be a female is independent from whether the 1st one is a male or a female: therefore, we can apply the rule for independent events, and this means that the probability that both children are females is the product of the individual probability of a child being a female:

p(ff)=p(f)\cdot p(f)

And substituting

p(f)=0.48

We find:

p(ff)=0.48\cdot 0.48=0.23

Which means 23%.

c)

In this case, we want to find the probability they have exactly one male and exactly one female child. This is given by the sum of two probabilities:

- The probability that 1st child is a male and 2nd child is a female, namely p(mf)

- The probability that 1st child is a female and 2nd child is a male, namely p(fm)

So, this probability is

p(mf Ufm)=p(mf)+p(fm)

We have:

p(mf)=p(m)\cdot p(f)=0.52\cdot 0.48=0.25

p(fm)=p(f)\cdot p(m)=0.48\cdot 0.52=0.25

Therefore, this probability is

p(mfUfm)=0.25+0.25=0.50

So, 50%.

Learn more about probabilities:

brainly.com/question/5751004

brainly.com/question/6649771

brainly.com/question/8799684

brainly.com/question/7888686

#LearnwithBrainly

5 0
3 years ago
What is a equivalent ratio for 11/2
ELEN [110]
I believe that it is 5 1/2
5 0
3 years ago
The following represent which equation?
Tanzania [10]

Ans

Ste p-by-step explanation:

cccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccccc

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Need answer ASAP pls
jarptica [38.1K]

Answer:

Distance(PQ)=\sqrt{113}

Step-by-step explanation:

In coordinate geometry distance between the two points can be find by using the distance formula:

For two points :

            (x_1,y_1)\\and \\(x_2,y_2)

Distance=\sqrt{(x_2-x_1)^2+(y_2-y_1)^2}

For points: P(3,-1) and Q(-5,6)

Distance (PQ):

                    =\sqrt{(-5-3)^2+(6-(-1))^2} \\\\=\sqrt{(-8)^2+(6+1)^2}\\\\ =\sqrt{(-8)^2+(7)^2} \\\\=\sqrt{64+49}\\\\Distance(PQ) =\sqrt{113}\\\\

5 0
3 years ago
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