Answer:
$0
Explanation:
According to US GAAP the reduction in the value of the asset due to a decrease in the fair value. It means when fair value of the asset is reduced than the book value of the asset.
Amortized Cost / Book value = $50,000
Market Value = $53,000
Discounted Value = $51,000
There is no Impairment loss on this asset as the fair market value is more than the book value of the asset.
The correct answer should be d. the cost of groceries
Since the most correct answer would be production costs, in this case, the cost of groceries is the production cost as it is the cost of what you need for production.
Answer:
The immediate cause of World War I that made the aforementioned items come into play (alliances, imperialism, militarism, nationalism) was the assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand of Austria-Hungary. In June 1914, a Serbian-nationalist terrorist group called the Black Hand sent groups to assassinate the Archduke.
<h3>hope it will help u in understanding☺</h3>
Answer:
Short-term.
Explanation:
Short-term can be explained to be financing of business for short period of time from different sources. This financing are seen to be in the periods of a year and is said to be for smaller scale businesses.
It is easily necessary to secure additional funds to cover expenses, especially for those smaller businesses or to take the next step in growing the business. These short term loans are seen to be a lending option that work for many businesses that experience seasonal revenue fluctuations, and are easily taken back from the enterprise on a daily basis or monthly to cover up for the year.
Answer:
e) $37.05
Explanation:
Using the dividend growth model, the value of a stock is the present value of the future dividends receivable discounted at the required rate of return . The required rate of return is given as 12%.
So we discount the year 3 dividend using the dividend growth model formula
P = D (1+g)/r-g
r- rate of return, g = growth rate
Present value of the future dividends:
PV of Year 1 = 1.55(1.015)m × 1.12^(-1)
= 1.4047
PV of Year 2 = 1.55 (1.015)(1.015) × 1.12^(-2)
= 1.27
PV of Year 3 (this will be done in two steps)
Step 1; PV (in yr 2) of year 3 dividend
= (1.55)(1.015)^2×(1.08)/(0.12-0.08)
=43.114
Step 2 : PV (in yr 2) of year 3 dividend
=43.114 × (1.12^(-2))
= 34.37
Best estimate of stock = 1.40 + 1.27 +34.37
= $37.05
Note
To discount the year 3 dividend, we use two steps. The first stp helps get the PV in year 2, and step 3 helps to take it further to the PV in year 0
