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Semenov [28]
3 years ago
13

Under U.S. GAAP, if the carrying value of a fixed asset was $50,000, the undiscounted expected future cash flows was $55,000, th

e discounted expected future cash flows was $51,000, and the selling price was $53,000, what is the amount of impairment loss?
Business
2 answers:
ira [324]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

$0

Explanation:

According to US GAAP the reduction in the value of the asset due to a decrease in the fair value. It means when fair value of the asset is reduced than the book value of the asset.

Amortized Cost / Book value = $50,000

Market Value = $53,000

Discounted Value = $51,000

There is no Impairment loss on this asset as the fair market value is more than the book value of the asset.

FrozenT [24]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Nil, asset is not impaired.

Explanation:

An asset is said to be impaired if and only if the carrying amount of the asset is more than the recoverable amount.

The recoverable amount is the higher of the value in use (which is the discounted expected future cash flows) and the fair value less cost to sell.

Recoverable amount = $53,000 (being the higher of the selling price and the discounted expected future cash flow)

Since this is higher than the carrying value of the asset, it is not impaired.

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Marin Company in its first year of operations provides the following information related to one of its available-for-sale debt s
KonstantinChe [14]

Answer:

Explanation:

Available for sale securities are required to be reported at fair value.

Hence the difference between amortized cost and fair value is required to be transferred to other comprehensive income.

The amount of credit loss that Marin should report on this available for sale security at 31-12-2020

= $52,000 - $44,000

= $8,000

8 0
3 years ago
Outline the differences between chain stores and departmental stores.​
dlinn [17]

Answer:

For chain stores, prices are uniform in all branches while for departmental stores, each department sets its own price. Chain stores sell similar goods while departmental stores deal with different line of goods.

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
If a family spends its entire budget in a given time frame, the family can afford either 80 cans of beans or 35 frozen pizzas. A
Fofino [41]

Answer:

7/16

Explanation:

Opportunity cost is the cost of the alternative forgone. It is also called the real cost. It is a concept in economics developed due to the fact that wants are unlimited but the resources available to meet the wants are limited. Hence a scale of preference would be drawn up for the wants in order of importance.

If the family can afford either 80 cans of beans or 35 frozen pizzas, the cost of a can of beans in terms of frozen pizza is 35/80 frozen pizza while the cost of a unit of frozen pizza in terms of beans is 80/35.

As such, the opportunity cost of one can of beans in terms of frozen pizza is 35/80 which is 7/16 in the lowest term

6 0
3 years ago
On December 31, after making a concerted effort, management determines that it will not be able to collect the $1,200 owed to it
zvonat [6]

Answer:

See explanation section

Explanation:

To record the journal entry to write off the uncollectible account according to the direct write-off method, we have to use bad dad expanse instead of an allowance account.

December 31         Bad Debt Expense           Debit     $1,200

                              Account receivable - Acme, Inc.      Credit    $1,200

Note: As the company did not get the money from the Acme, Inc., They treated the expense as irrecoverable.

4 0
3 years ago
Ottawa university sold 15,000 season football tickets at $80 each for its six-game home schedule. what entry should be made when
RUDIKE [14]
<span>The total revenue they earned from selling the football tickets is $1,200,000. As a result, they should debit cash for $1,200,000 and credit for unearned revenue for the same amount.</span>
4 0
4 years ago
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