Answer:
$309
Explanation:
The computation of the gross earning for the week is as follows:
Given that
Payment of $7.15 × 8 = $57.2 or payment of each unit produced whichever is greater
On monday
= 90 units × $0.60
= $54
But the greater is $57.2
On tuesday
= 114 units × $0.60
= $68.4
On Wednesday
= 82 units × $0.60
= $49.20
But the greater is $57.2
On thursday
= 112 units × $0.60
= $67.20
On friday
= 98 units × $0.60
= $58.80
Now the earnings for the last week is
= $57.20 + $68.4 + $57.20 + $67.20 + $58.80
= $308.80
= $309
Answer:
Explanation:
Pretax cost of debt is the annual rate(YTM) of the bond. Using a financial calculator, input the following to calculate it;
N = 5*2 = 10
PV = -(95% *10,000,000) = -9,500,000
Coupon PMT = (6%/2)*10,000,000 = 300,000
FV = 10,000,000
then compute semiannual rate; CPT I/Y = 3.604%
convert to annual rate = 3.604*2 = 7.21%(this is the pretax cost of debt)
After tax cost of debt is calculated because interest payable on debt has tax shield. The formula is as follows;
Aftertax cost of debt = pretax cost of debt (1-tax)
AT cost of debt = 7.21% (1-0.40)
AT cost of debt = 4.33%
In data mining, finding an affinity of two products to be commonly together in a shopping cart is known as:
<h3>What is Association Rule Mining?</h3>
This refers to the machine based learning method which aims to find similarities between variables in large databases.
With this in mind, we can see that when the affinity of two common products is used such as a shopping cart, in data mining, this is known as the association rule mining.
Read more about data mining here:
brainly.com/question/13954653
Answer:
The value of the intangible will remain at $350,000
Explanation:
The reason is that the International Accounting Standard IAS-36 says that once the impairment is recognized for the intangible assets it can not be reversed which means that the amount reported would be $350,000. The reason is that it is very rare that the asset gain its value and specially those which are intangible assets. Most of the management in the 1990s-2000 tried to recognize a gain on impairment which was unjustifiable to increase their profits for the period so the standard specifically didn't permitted gain on a previously impaired asset.
“Industrial goods are materials used in the production of other goods.” “Consumer goods are finished products that are sold to and used by consumers”
LINK TO WHERE I FOUND THAT INFO:
https://www.investopedia.com/ask/answers/050415/how-are-industrial-goods-different-consumer-goods.asp
Hope that helped have a great day! :)