Probability that no samples are mutated is 0.83, probability that at most one sample is mutated is 0.9812 and probability that more than half the samples are mutated is 0.
Given percentage of rejuvenated mitochondria defective is 1%, and sample size is 18.
Binomial distribution is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials and X can have two outcomes.
P(X=x)=
percentage of defective rejuvendated mitochondria=1%
p=0.01
Sample size=18
n=18
a) No samples are mutated
This means P(X=0)=
=0.83
b) At most one sample is mutated.
P(X<=1)=P(X=0)+P(X=1)
so,
P(X=0)=
=0.83
P(X=1)=
=
=0.1512
P(X<=1)=0.83+0.1512
=0.9812
c) More than half the samples are mutated.
P(X>9)=P(X=10)+P(X=11)+P(X=12)+P(X=13)+P(X=14)+P(X=15)+P(X=16)+P(X=17)+P(X=18)
Using two decimals digits precision all will be 0.
Hence Probability that no samples are mutated is 0.83, probability that at most one sample is mutated is 0.9812 and probability that more than half the samples are mutated is 0.
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Answer:
69 3/4
Step-by-step explanation:
The stock market goes down to 50 3/4 at the beginning of the day
At the end of the day it goes up to 120 1/2
Therefore total change in the stock market from the beginning to the end of the day can be calculated as follows
= 120 1/2 - 50 3/4
= 241/2 - 203/4
= 279/4
= 69 3/4
Hence the total change in the stock market from the beginning to the end of the day is
69 3/4
Answer:
38
Step-by-step explanation:
f(-9) is the value of f(x) when x = -9. Therefore, f(-9) = 4 from the graph. Doing the same with g(6), we can see that g(6) = 6. Our expression becomes:
-1 * 4 + 7 * 6
= -4 + 42
= 38
Omari (3 1/2)___________(0)school____________(3 1/4)daisy
3 1/2 + 3 1/4 = 6 + (1/2 + 1/4) = 6 + (2/4 + 1/4) = 6 3/4 blocks apart <==
Answer:
D. Yes, because the scale does not start at 0.
Step-by-step explanation: