Answer:
Freight-absorption
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that the Texas Granite Company in Dallas should use Freight-absorption pricing in this situation. This is a pricing strategy in which the seller takes responsibility for all the freight charges that the company incurs in order to attract the amount of business that they hope to achieve. Since company's that are looking to buy see 0 freight charges it becomes a deal since they are saving money as opposed to buying from another company that charges the freight charges to the buyer.
Answer:
Present value (PV) = $1,000
Interest rate (r) =8% = 0.08
Number of years (n) = 18 months = 1.5 years
No of compounding periods in a year = 4
Future value (FV) = ?
FV = PV(1 + r/m)nm
FV = $1,000(1 + 0.08/4)1.5x4
FV = $1,000(1 + 0.02)6
FV = $1,000 x 1.1262
FV = $1,126
Explanation:
The amount to be received in 18 months is $1,126. This is obtained by compounding the present value at 8% compounded quarterly for 18 months. The formula to be applied is the formula for future value of a lump sum(single investment).
Since Isamu carefully controls costs by ordering in bulk, limiting labor costs, and renting the additional space in his building to another business, then he is an example of an efficient manager.
An efficient manager refers to a manager that uses limited resources in order to do a particular job in a professional manner.
It should be noted that an efficient manager identifies his or her priorities and develop structures to accomplish the objectives. In this case, Isamu carefully manages the available resources, therefore, he's an <em>efficient manager</em>.
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Answer:
False.
Explanation:
Given: Total budgeted factory overhead cost = $600000.
Plantwide allocation base= 100000 hours.
Now, finding plantwide factory overhead rate.
Formula; Plantwide factory overhead rate= 
⇒ Plantwide factory overhead rate= 
Hence, Zorn´s plantwide factory overhead rate is $6 per hour not $3 per hour.
Answer:
2.96% will be effective rate of the investment
Explanation:
First year:
1,000 x 1 + 10%) = 1,100
<em><u>Second year: </u></em>
1,100 + 3,000 = 4,100 invesmtent balance
4,100 x (1 - 5%) = 3,895
<em><u>Third year:</u></em>
3,895 + 2,000 = 5,895
5,895 x (1 + 2%) = 6012.9
<em><u>Fourth year:</u></em>
6012.9 + 500 = 6512.9
6,512.9 x (1+ 8%) = 7033.932
We calcualte rate that is equivalent with the following cash flow:
We solve using excel goal seek
0.029646151
