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Naily [24]
4 years ago
5

:

Mathematics
1 answer:
Vinil7 [7]4 years ago
4 0
The mean is 30 because you have to add up all the numbers
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Determine the slope of the function that is perpendicular to f(x) = 4x
slamgirl [31]

Answer:

B)-1/4

Step-by-step explanation:

f(x) = 4x ; slope is 4

perpendicular , slope is opposite and reciprocals so slope of this perpendicular line is -1/4

Answer

B)-1/4

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Need help asap please no scammers!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
galina1969 [7]

Answer:

111

Step-by-step explanation:

u got scammed

4 0
3 years ago
$4000 for 2years at 5% compounded quarterley
NeTakaya
\bf \qquad \textit{Compound Interest Earned Amount}
\\\\
A=P\left(1+\frac{r}{n}\right)^{nt}
\qquad 
\begin{cases}
A=\textit{accumulated amount}\\
P=\textit{original amount deposited}\to &\$4000\\
r=rate\to 5\%\to \frac{5}{100}\to &0.05\\
n=
\begin{array}{llll}
\textit{times it compounds per year}\\
\textit{quarterly, meaning 4 times}
\end{array}\to &4\\

t=years\to &2
\end{cases}
5 0
3 years ago
A circular bar is subjected to an axial pull of 100kN.if the maximum intensity of shear stress on any plane is not to exceed 60M
Oksana_A [137]
Use a Mohr circle to find the maximum shear stress relative to the axial stress.
Here we assume the axial stress is sigma, the transverse axial stress is zero.
So we have a Mohr circle with (0,0) and (0,sigma) as a diameter.
The centre of the circle is therefore (0,sigma/2), and the radius is sigma/2.
From the circle, we determine that the maximum stress is the maximum y-axis values, namely +/- sigma/2, at locations (sigma/2, sigma/2), and (sigma/2, -sigma/2).
Given that the maximum shear stress is 60 MPa, we have
sigma/2=60 MPa, or sigma=120 MPa.
(note: 1 MPa = 1N/mm^2)
Therefore
100 kN/(pi*d^2/4)=100,000 N/(pi*d^2/4)=120 MPa  where d is in mm.
Solve for d
d=sqrt(100,000*4/(120*pi))
=32.5735 mm
5 0
3 years ago
Rita's family is moving to Grand Junction to Dallas. The moving van averages 60 miles each hour. About how many hours does the v
Eddi Din [679]

Answer:

16 hours and 20 minutes.

Step-by-step explanation:

Please consider the complete question.

Rita's family is moving to Grand Junction to Dallas, which is 980 miles. The moving van averages 60 miles each hour. About how many hours does the van take to reach Dallas?

To find the time taken by van to reach Dallas, we will divide total distance by speed.

\text{Time}=\frac{\text{Distance}}{\text{Speed}}

\text{Time taken to reach Dallas}=\frac{980\text{ Miles}}{60\frac{\text{ Miles}}{\text{Hour}}}

\text{Time taken to reach Dallas}=\frac{980\text{ Miles}}{60}\times \frac{\text{ Hour}}{\text{Miles}}

\text{Time taken to reach Dallas}=\frac{98}{6}\text{ Hour}

\text{Time taken to reach Dallas}=16.3333\text{ Hour}

Let us convert 0.3333 hours into minutes by multiplying 0.3333 by 60.

0.3333\times 60=19.998\approx 20

Therefore, it will take 16 hours and 20 minutes for the van to reach Dallas.

5 0
3 years ago
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