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vlabodo [156]
3 years ago
12

How is domain of the function f(x)=sinx restricted so that its inverse function exists?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Virty [35]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Correct answer:  sin x ⇒D(x) :  [- π/2, π/2] ; sin⁻¹x ⇒ CD(x) :  [- π/2, π/2]

Step-by-step explanation:

In order for the function sin x to have an inverse function sin⁻¹x due to the monotony, the domain is taken D(x) :  [- π/2, π/2] and the range of sin⁻¹x  is CD(x) :  [- π/2, π/2].

God is with you!!!

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