How is domain of the function f(x)=sinx restricted so that its inverse function exists?

Mathematics

1 answer:

Virty [35]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

Correct answer: sin x ⇒D(x) : [- π/2, π/2] ; sin⁻¹x ⇒ CD(x) : [- π/2, π/2]

Step-by-step explanation:

In order for the function sin x to have an inverse function sin⁻¹x due to the monotony, the domain is taken D(x) : [- π/2, π/2] and the range of sin⁻¹x is CD(x) : [- π/2, π/2].

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Aloiza [94]

Answer

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Step by step explanation

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