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Ronch [10]
3 years ago
13

According to GAAP, the amount of bad debt expense can be estimated by: A. Only the percent of sales method. B. Only the percent

of accounts receivable method. C. Only by the aging of accounts receivable method. D. Only by the percent of sales method or the percent of accounts receivable method. E. Bad debt expense can be estimated by the percent of sales method, the percent of accounts receivable method, or by the aging of accounts receivable method.
Business
1 answer:
yarga [219]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

E. Bad debt expense can be estimated by the percent of sales method, the percent of accounts receivable method, or by the aging of accounts receivable method.

Explanation:

The bad debt is an expense that is to be shown on the debit side of the income statement. It refers to the amount which is not collectible by the company due to partie bankruptcy

It can be estimated by the following methods using the Generally accepeted accounting principles (GAAP)

1. percent of accounts receivable method,

2. percent of sales method

3. the aging of accounts receivable method

Hence, the correct option is E.

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Help me please.. there is no option on here for Human Resources principals, so I jus clicked business as the subject..
miskamm [114]
I think A, but I’m not sure.
5 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
At a volume of 5,000 units, Pwerson Company incurred $32,000 in factory overhead costs, including $14,000 in fixed costs. If vol
shusha [124]

Answer:

If volume increases to 6,000 units and both 5,000 units and 6,000 units are within the relevant range, the company would expect to incur total factory overhead costs of $35,600

Explanation:

At a volume of 5,000 units, Pwerson Company incurred $32,000 in factory overhead costs, including $14,000 in fixed costs.

The variable in factory overhead costs = $32,000 - $14,000 = $18,000

The variable in factory overhead costs per unit = $18,000/5,000 = $3.6

Both 5,000 units and 6,000 units are within the relevant range. Therefore, when volume increases to 6,000 units, fixed costs are not change.

The variable in factory overhead costs = $3.6 x 6,000 = $21,600

Total factory overhead costs = $21,600 + $14,000 = $35,600

4 0
3 years ago
Dividends Paid and Dividends in Arrears The Glendora Company has 200,000 shares of cumulative, five percent, $100 par value pref
Ierofanga [76]

Answer:

Dividend in arrears $ 1,000,000

Total Dividend       $ 2,000,000  

Explanation:

The dividend at 5% of $100 par value is $5 per unit of shares. Recall, each unit of the preference shares has a par value of $100

Dividend calculation = $5 multiplied by the total unit of shares

previous year shares dividend is 5 x 200, 000 unit of shares = $ 1,000,000

This year total dividend payout will be current year of $1,000,000 plus previous year of $1,000,000 = $2,000,000

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Kilbuck manufacturing operates in a lean manufacturing environment. kilbuck's actual conversion costs for the month of may follo
Brums [2.3K]
Kilbuck Manufacturing operates in a lean manufacturing environment. Kilbuck’s actual conversion costs for the month of May follow:
<span><span>Direct and indirect labor $150,000
</span><span>Machine depreciation $85,000
</span><span>Maintenance and supplies $60,000
</span><span>Total conversion costs <span>$295,000
<span>The journal entry to record April's conversion costs will include:
</span>D. A debit to Raw and In Process Inventory

</span></span></span>Raw materials of all kinds are measured at the start<span> recorded into </span>a list plus<span> account with a debit to the raw materials inventory account and a credit to the accounts </span>collectible<span> account.When raw materials </span>are<span> consumed, the accounting treatment varies, </span>betting on<span> their </span>standing<span> as direct or indirect materials.</span>
3 0
2 years ago
Mr. James purchased a vacation house in Los Angeles on July 1, 2017. The purchase price was $1,000,000, and Mr. James spent $10,
dedylja [7]

Answer:

= $210,000

Explanation:

The question is to determine the income realized by Mr. James in 2019

The income is calculated as follows:

First, the basic information for calculation:

The Purchase price for the vacation house = $1,000,000

Spent Capital additions = $10,000

2019 worth of the house = $1,200,000

Secondly, based on the extracted figures, the income is calculated  as follows

Income realised in 2019 = 2019 worth of the house - (Purchase Price - capital addition)

= $1,200,000 - ($1,000,000 - $10,000)

= $1,200,000 - $990,000

= $210,000

4 0
2 years ago
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