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natulia [17]
3 years ago
5

Rank the following instruments in terms of credit risk. In your rankings, use 1 for the greatest credit risk and 4 for the small

est credit risk. Assume a 10 year Treasury trades with a YTM of 5%.a. A Ba1 corporate bond ______b. A ten-year BBB- corporate bond with a YTM of 7% ______c. A secured loan from Argosy Gaming, which is a B- rated firm ______d. A senior subordinated bond from Argosy Gaming
Business
1 answer:
bija089 [108]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

a. A Ba1 corporate bond <u>2 (not investment grade)</u>

b. A ten-year BBB- corporate bond with a YTM of 7% <u>3 (medium risk but still investment grade)</u>

c. A secured loan from Argosy Gaming, which is a B- rated firm <u>4 (less risky since it is backed by a collateral)</u>

d. A senior subordinated bond from Argosy Gaming <u>1 (highest risk)</u>

Explanation:

There are two major bond rating agencies in the US: Moody's and Standard & Poor's.

Their rankings are very similar, although the letters vary a little:

AAA: safest

AA: low risk

A: low risk

BBB: medium risk

BB: a little bit more riskier

B: risky

CCC: very high risk

CC: even riskier

C: riskiest

D: junk, in default

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Bezzdna [24]

Answer:

Alejandro´s opportunity cost is 2/3 of a chart.

Roger´s opportunity cost is 1/2 of a chart.

Explanation:

The cost of opportunity represent the benefits that you misses out on when choosing one alternative over another.  

In this case ,  we can say that Alejandro and Roger can produce 2 product.  And if they produce one ,  they loose the possibility of producing the other.

We can Illustrate this situation with a production possibility frontiers graph and  if we increase  the quantity produced of one good,  will  decrease the other, because the limited resources.  

Alejandro produce 3 three pages of the paper in the same time it takes him to create two charts. We use cross multiplication to get  how many charts Alejandro produce at the same time he produce a single page

1___x

3___2 so x= 1x2/3

So ,  in the time he produce a single page of the essay,  he could produce 2/3 of a chart. This is the cost opportunity.

Roger can write two pages of the paper in the same time he can produce a single chart. So,  in the time he produce a single page of the essay he could make half of a chart.  

Download xlsx
3 0
3 years ago
The wealthiest 10% of adults worldwide own what percentage of the earth's wealth?
AleksAgata [21]
85% of the wealth comes from 10% of the wealthiest people
4 0
3 years ago
Describes the location at which hotel goods and services are purchased
Inessa05 [86]
In the rooms because that is where the amenities are located ie the bed comfort, the TV, the view, the room size and then the leaning services and the room service (for food from the restaurants)
4 0
3 years ago
he director of capital budgeting for See-Saw Inc., manufacturers of playground equipment, is considering a plan to expand produc
kicyunya [14]

Answer and Explanation:

The computation is shown below:

Debt = D ÷ (E + D)

= 0.8 ÷ (1 + 0.8)

= 0.4444

Now

Weight of equity = 1 - Debt

= 1 - 0.4444

= 0.5556

As per Dividend discount model

Price = Dividend in 1 year ÷ (cost of equity - growth rate)

40 = $2 ÷ (Cost of equity - 0.06)

Cost of equity = 11%

Cost of debt

K = N

Let us assume the par value be $1,000

Bond Price =∑ [(Annual Coupon) ÷ (1 + YTM)^k] + Par value ÷ (1 + YTM)^N

k=1

K =25

$804 =∑ [(7 × $1000 ÷ 100)/(1 + YTM ÷ 100)^k] + $1000 ÷ (1 + YTM ÷ 100)^25

k=1

YTM = 9

After tax cost of debt = cost of debt × (1 - tax rate)

= 9 × (1 - 0.21)

= 7.11

WACC = after tax cost of debt × W(D) + cost of equity ×W(E)

= 7.11 × 0.4444 + 11 × 0.5556

= 9.27%

As we can see that the WACC is lower than the return so it should be undertake the expansion

5 0
3 years ago
In 1895, the winner of a competition was paid $150. In 2006, the winner's prize was $70,000. What will the winner's prize be in
Jobisdone [24]

Answer:

the price will grow to $ 507,571.77 If it continues with the same grow rate

Explanation:

first we solve for the rate:

2006 - 1895 = 111 years

Nominal (1+r)^{n} = FV\\150 (1+r)^{111} = 70,000\\\\r = \sqrt[111]{70,000 / 150 } -1

r =  0.06  

Now we apply this rate for the year 2040:

2040 - 2006 = 34 years

Principal \: (1+ r)^{time} = Amount

Principal 70,000.00

time 34.00

rate 0.06000

70000 \: (1+ 0.06)^{34} = Amount

Amount 507,571.77

6 0
3 years ago
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