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postnew [5]
3 years ago
15

During the year, TRC Corporation has the following inventory transactions. Date Transaction Number of Units Unit Cost Total Cost

Jan. 1 Beginning inventory 53 $ 45 $ 2,385 Apr. 7 Purchase 133 47 6,251 Jul. 16 Purchase 203 50 10,150 Oct. 6 Purchase 113 51 5,763 502 $ 24,549 For the entire year, the company sells 433 units of inventory for $63 each. Required: 1. Using FIFO, calculate ending inventory, cost of goods sold, sales revenue, and gross profit
Business
1 answer:
AveGali [126]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Instructions are listed below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Jan. 1: Beginning inventory 53 units at $45

Apr. 7: Purchase 133 units at $47

Jul. 16: Purchase 203 units at $50

Oct. 6: Purchase 113 units at $51

The company sells 433 units of inventory for $63 each.

Under FIFO (first-in, first-out), the ending inventory cost is calculated using the purchasing cost of the last units bought.

First, we need to calculate the ending inventory in units:

Ending inventor in units= total units - units sold

Ending inventory in units= 502 - 433= 69 units

A) Ending inventory= 69*$51= $3,519

B) Cost of goods sold= 53*45 + 133*47 + 203*50 + 44*51= $21,030

C) Sales revenue= 433*63= $27,279

D) Gross profit= sales revenue - cost of goods sold

Gross profit= 27,279 - 21,030= $6,249

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Assume the spot rate of the British pound is $1.73. The expected spot rate 1 year from now is assumed to be $1.66. What percenta
Alexandra [31]

Answer:

The correct answer is 4.05%.

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:

Spot rate = $1.73

Expected spot rate after 1 year = $1.66

So, we can calculate the depreciation percentage by using the following formula:

Expected Depreciation = (Expected spot rate after 1 year - Spot rate) / Spot rate

So, by putting the value

= ($1.66 – $1.73) / $1.73

= - $0.07 / $1.73

= - 4.05%

Hence, the depreciation percentage is 4.05%.

8 0
3 years ago
The market risk premium is computed by: adding the risk-free rate of return to the inflation rate. adding the risk-free rate of
OverLord2011 [107]

Answer:

subtracting the risk-free rate of return from the market rate of return

Explanation:

Market risk premium is the premium over the risk free rate that investors demand for holding a risky asset

Market risk premium = market rate of return - risk free rate

the higher the risk premium, the higher the return investors are demanding and the riskier the investment

for example if risk free rate is 5% , market rate of return in industry A is 10% while in industry B it is 20%

Market premium in A = 10% - 5% = 5%

Market premium in b = 20% - 5% = 15%

3 0
3 years ago
Tengo una pregunta de mi clase económica y finanzas personales <br><br> A debtor is??
astraxan [27]

Answer:

A person that owes money

Explanation:

que tengas buen dia

7 0
3 years ago
2700 thousand bonds with a face value of $1000 each, are sold at 106. The entry to record the issuance is
IceJOKER [234]

Date, bonds sold at a premium

Dr Cash $28620000000

   Cr Bonds payable $2,700,000,000

   Cr Premium on bonds payable $1,62,000,000

Explanation:

The total face value of the bonds is $1,000 x 2700,000 bonds = $2,700,000,000

since the bonds were sold at 106, their price was =

$2,700,000,000 x 106% = $28620000000

the difference between the face value and the actual market price = $2,862,000,000 - $2,700,000,000 = $1,62,000,000 must be recorded as premium on bonds payable (increases the bonds' carrying value)

<h3>What is the difference between market value and face value?</h3>
  • The market value is the actual price at which the security trades on the open market, as well as the price that fluctuates when the yield reacts to changes in interest rates.
  • The face value is determined by the issuing company. It may be the value at which the firm redeems the shares at some point in the future, but there is no guarantee.

Learn more about date and the interest expense:

brainly.com/question/20038664

#SPJ4

7 0
2 years ago
The fair rate is 8%. What is 100 per year, forever, worth now?
777dan777 [17]

Answer:

1. $1,250

2. $855.95

3. $3,333.33

4. $92.59

5. $46.32

6. $671.01

Explanation:

1.

$100 per year forever

Constant Cash flow every year forever is actually a perpetuity its present value is

PV of Perpetuity = Cash flow / rate of return

PV of $100 Perpetuity = $100 / 0.08 = $1,250

2.

$100 per year for 15 years

Constant Cash flow every year for specific time period is actually a Annuity  its present value is

PV of annuity = P + P [ ( 1 - ( 1 + r )^-n ) / r ] = $100 + $100 [ ( 1 - ( 1 + 0.08 )^-15 ) / 0.08 ] = $855.95

3.

$100 per year grow at 5% forever

It is a growing perpetuity and its present value will be calculated as follow

Present value of growing perpetuity = Cash flow / Rate of return - growth rate

Present value of growing perpetuity = $100 / 0.08 - 0.05 = $3,333.33

4.

$100 once at the end of this year

Present value = P ( 1 + r)^-n = $100 ( 1 + 0.08 )^-1 = $92.59

5.

$100 once after 10 years

Present value = P ( 1 + r)^-n = $100 ( 1 + 0.08 )^-10 = $46.32

6.

$100 each year for 10 years @ 8%

PV of annuity = P + P [ ( 1 - ( 1 + r )^-n ) / r ] = $100 + $100 [ ( 1 - ( 1 + 0.08 )^-10 ) / 0.08 ] = $671.01

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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