Answer:
30%
Step-by-step explanation:
Percentage loss is calculated as
× 100%
loss = 50000 - 35000 = 15000, thus
percent loss = 
× 100% = 30%
Answer:
D and E because they are bigger than 28. C is 28 but there isn't a greater OR EQUAL sign next to it
Answer:
y= 1 and x=-2
Step-by-step explanation:
Since they both equal y, you can equal them to each other:
x + 3 = 2x + 5
Then solve:
x - x + 3 = 2x - x + 5
3 - 5 = x + 5 - 5
-2 = x
Substitute x in either equation to solve for y:
y = (-2) +3
y = 1
Or the other equation:
y = 2(-2) + 5
y = -4 + 5
y = 1
hope this helps :)
If x - 4 ≥ 0, then |x - 4| = x - 4, so
G(x) = F(x) ⇒ 3x + 2 = (x - 4) + 2
⇒ 3x + 2 = x - 2
⇒ 2x = -4
⇒ x = -2
Otherwise, if x - 4 < 0, then |x - 4| = -(x - 4), so
G(x) = F(x) ⇒ 3x + 2 = -(x - 4) + 2
⇒ 3x + 2 = -x + 6
⇒ 4x = 4
⇒ x = 1
However,
• when x = -2, we have
G(-2) = 3(-2) + 2 = -4
F(-2) = |-2 - 4| + 2 = 8
• when x = 1, we have
G(1) = 3(1) + 2 = 5
F(1) = |1 - 4| + 2 = 5
so only x = 1 is a solution to G(x) = F(x).
Outcome Bag of Gold Magic Wand
Relative frequency 0.32 0.68
The relative frequency of getting a bag of gold is .......... reasonably close
.32 is close to 30% so
Alison's claim about the theoretical probability is likely to be 2............true
Further, this means that the theoretical probability of getting a magic wand is most likely 3............1 - 30% = 70%
