3 years ago

I REALLY NEED HELP! ive tried this so many times and just cant get it! thank you!

1 answer:

posledela3 years ago

4 0

Like i told u earleir explain more

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stepan [7]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0

2 years ago

zaharov [31]

I would think 3? it should be 3 because 32*2=64 which isn’t everyone 32*3 is 96
79+12=91

6 0

2 years ago

stepan [7]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Remember that the limit definition of a derivative at a point is:

$\displaystyle{\frac{d}{dx}[f(a)]= \lim_{x \to a}\frac{f(x)-f(a)}{x-a}}$

Hence, if we let f(x) be ln(x+1) and a be 1, this will yield:

$\displaystyle{\frac{d}{dx}[f(1)]= \lim_{x \to 1}\frac{\ln(x+1)-\ln(2)}{x-1}}$

Hence, the limit is equivalent to the derivative of f(x) at x=1, or f’(1).

The answer will thus be D.

5 0

2 years ago

Delvig [45]

Y= 2/3x+1
or
y=2/3x+b
.....................

6 0

3 years ago

Anestetic [448]

Rewrite 1/4 to have 8 as the denominator: 1/4 = 2/8

Now add the two days together:

2/8 + 3/8 = 5/8

Answer: 5/8

3 0

2 years ago