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Wewaii [24]
3 years ago
12

What is the hedonic theory of wage differentials? Discuss the characteristics of a normal-profit isoprofit curve. Combine isopro

fit curves with worker indifference curves to explain how two workers with identical stocks of human capital might be paid different wage rates.

Business
1 answer:
Hatshy [7]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

hedonic Theory of Wages:  

Accept just two kinds of occupations in the work showcase (safe employments versus unsafe occupations). Under this, sheltered employments have likelihood of zero that specialist gets harmed. Unsafe occupations have likelihood of 1 and laborers know this. Laborers care about whether their occupations are sheltered or hazardous.  

Laborers expand utility by picking wage-chance blends that offer them the best measure of utility. Expect laborers disdain hazard, yet to various degrees, for example they have diverse ideal pay chance blends. Firms are on their isoprofit bends that give the hazard wage mixes that give zero (financial) benefit. They vary between firms. An indulgent pay work mirror the connection among wages and occupation qualities. It matches laborers with various hazard inclinations with firms that can give employments that coordinate these diverse hazard inclinations.  

Apathy bends uncover the exchange offs that a laborer favors among wages and level of hazard (chance thought to be an 'awful'). To give a similar utility, dangerous occupations must compensation higher wages than safe employments. The more prominent the laborer's aversion for hazard, the more prominent the pay off required for changing from a safe to an unsafe activity, and the more noteworthy the booking cost. As the pay firms bring to the table for hazardous occupations increments, less firms will extend to dangerous employment opportunities and bringing about a descending slanting interest bend as it turns out to be increasingly productive for firms to make occupations spare than to pay the higher compensation.  

Suppositions of Differential Wage Theory are:  

  1. The compensation differential is sure. Hazardous employments pay more than spare occupations.  
  2. The balance wage differential is that of the last laborer employed (the peripheral specialist). It's anything but a proportion of the normal abhorrence for chance among laborers in the work showcase.  
  3. Along these lines, everything except the minimal specialist are overcompensated by the market.  

On the off chance that a few specialists like to work in dangerous occupations (they are eager to pay for the option to be harmed) and if the interest for such laborers is little, the market repaying differential is negative. At point P, where supply rises to request, laborers utilized in unsafe occupations acquire not as much as laborers utilized in safe employments. The outline given beneath shows the circumstance:  

Isoprofit Curve:  

As it is exorbitant to create well-being, a firm contribution hazard level P* can make the working environment more secure for example move left on flat pivot, just on the off chance that it diminishes compensation while keeping benefits consistent, so that the iso-benefit bend is upward slanting. Higher isoprofit bend returns lower benefit.

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Eric receives a portion of his income from his holdings of interest-bearing U.S. government bonds. The bonds offer a real intere
MArishka [77]

Solution :

Given :

The bonds offer a \text{real interest rate} of 4.5% per year

Tax rate = 10% = 0.10

Inflation rate = 2

\text{Nominal interest rate} = \text{real interest rate} + \text{inflation rate}

\text{Nominal interest rate} = 2 + 4.5

                                   = 6.5

\text{After tax nominal rate} = \text{Nominal interest rate} $\times (1-\text{tax rate})$

\text{After tax nominal interest rate} = $6.5 \times (1-0.10)$

                                                  $=6.5 \times 0.90$

                                                 = 5.85

After tax real interest rate = \text{after tax nominal rate} - \text{inflation rate}

                                           = 5.85 - 2.0

                                            = 3.85

\text{Inflation rate} = 7.0

\text{Real interest rate = 4.5}

\text{Nominal interest rate} = \text{real interest rate} + \text{inflation rate}

                                   = 7 + 4.5

                                  = 11.5

\text{After tax nominal interest rate} = \text{Nominal interest rate} $\times (1-\text{tax rate })$

                                                  $=11.5 \times (1 - 0.10)$

                                                  $=11.5 \times 0.90$

                                                = 10.35

\text{After tax nominal interest rate} = 11.5 x (1 - 0.10)

                                          = 11.5 x 0.90

                                         = 10.35

\text{After tax nominal interest rate} = \text{after tax nominal rate} - \text{inflation rate}

                                           = 10.35 - 7.0

                                          = 3.35

Putting all the value in table :

\text{Inflation rate}    Real interest  Nominal interest  After tax nominal  After tax  

                                  rate                rate               interest rate       interest rate

2.0                             4.5                  6.5                        5.85                   3.85

7.0                              4.5                11.5                         10.35                3.35

Comparing with the \text{higher inflation rate}, a \text{lower inflation rate} will increase the after after tax real interest rate when the government taxes nominal interest income. This tends to encourage saving, thereby increase the quantity of investment in the economy and the increase the economy's long-run growth rate.

7 0
3 years ago
Market failure describes a situation in which the market itself ________ in a way that balances social costs and benefits.
Lina20 [59]

A situation known as a "market failure" occurs when the market itself is unable to efficiently distribute resources in a way that balances social costs and benefits.

Market failure refers to a situation where there is an inefficient allocation of products and services on the open market. The individual incentives for rational behavior do not result in rational outcomes for the collective in a market failure.

In other words, each person chooses what is best for themselves, but those choices end up being bad for the collective. This can occasionally be demonstrated in conventional microeconomics as a steady-state disequilibrium condition.

To learn more about Market failure here

brainly.com/question/18958169

#SPJ4

8 0
2 years ago
Michael's, Inc., just paid $2.60 to its shareholders as the annual dividend. Simultaneously, the company announced that future d
mixas84 [53]

Answer:

$65.37

Explanation:

Calculation for how much are you willing to pay today to purchase one share of the company's stock

Using this formula

P/0 = D0 ( 1 + g ) / R-g

Let plug in the formula

P/0 = $2.60 (1 + .056) / .098 - .056

P/0 = $2.60 (1 .056)/0.042

P/0=$2.7456/0.042

P/0=$65.37

Therefore how much are you willing to pay today to purchase one share of the company's stock will be $65.37

6 0
3 years ago
Pros and cons on outdoor advertising
Mademuasel [1]
If I'm correct-- by outdoor advertising do you mean commercials and ads encouraging people to go outside?
7 0
3 years ago
Identify each of the following transactions as:
ale4655 [162]

Answer:

Explanation:

Basically there are three types of activities under the indirect method is shown below:

1. Operating activities: It includes those transactions which affect the working capital, and it records gain or loss on sale of the assets. Increase in current assets and decrease in current liabilities would be subtracted and the decrease in current assets and increase in current liabilities would be added

2. Investing activities: It records those activities which include purchase and sale of the fixed assets

3. Financing activities: It records those activities which affect the long term liability and shareholder equity balance.  

So, the item categorization under each activities are shown below:

a. Cash sale of land  - Investing activity (I) (+)

b. Issuance of long-term note payable in exchange for cash  - Financing activity (F) (+)

c. Depreciation of equipment  - Operating activity (O) (+)

d. Purchase of treasury stock  - Financing activity (F) (-)

e. Issuance of common stock for cash  - Financing activity (F) (+)

f. Increase in accounts payable  -   Operating activity (O) (+)

g. Net income  - Operating activity (O) (+)

h. Payment of cash dividend  - Financing activity (F) (-)

i. Decrease in accrued liabilities  - Operating activity (O) (-)

j. Loss on sale of land  - Operating activity (O) (+)

k. Acquisition of building by issuance of notes payable  - Non-cash investing and financing activity (NIF) as no cash transactions involves

l. Payment of long-term debt  - Financing activity (F) (-)

m. Acquisition of building by issuance of common stock  -  Non-cash investing and financing activity (NIF) as no cash transactions involves

n. Decrease in accounts receivable  - Operating activity (O) (+)

o. Decrease in inventory  - Operating activity (O) (+)

p. Increase in prepaid expenses - Operating activity (O) (-)

8 0
3 years ago
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