"1 indicating a coupon and all other outcomes indicating no coupon"
Probability is (number of successful outcomes) / (number of possible outcomes)
Theoretical Probability of rolling a 1: 1/8
Experimental Probability of using coupons: 4/48 = 1/12
So, the experimental probability of a customer using a coupon (that is, 1/12) is smaller than the theoretical probability of rolling a 1 (that is, 1/8).
Answer: Yes, because 3502.86 is multiplied by the exponent. i think, because i was stuck between that and the other yes, and the other yes was wrong, so im pretty sure its that.
Tell me if im right.
Step-by-step explanation:
Parallel because they have the same slope. Y+4= -1/2(x-2) is in point slope form, simplified to y intercept form is y=1/2-5... The slope (m) in both equations is the same, if you graphed the equations they would be parallel
Answer:
128
Step-by-step explanation:
Set this up as a proportion with miles on the top and km on the bottom:
If we want to know how many km are in 80 miles, we put the variable with the km stuff on the bottom and 80 on top and cross multiply to solve for the variable:
so
5x = 640 and
x = 128
That means that 80 miles is equivalent to 128 km
