Answer: The mean of this binomial distribution is 53.36.
Step-by-step explanation:
We know that , the mean of this binomial distribution is given by :_
, where n = sample size or the number of possible trials .
p = probability of getting success in each trial.
We are given that , the probability of success in each of the 58 identical engine tests is p = 0.92.
i.e. n= 58
p=0.92
Then, the mean of this binomial distribution = 
Hence , the mean of this binomial distribution is 53.36.
Answer:
It means that 6 numbers when you add them together it's going to give you 50
I think the correct answer is b 75
Standard deviation would be the best measurement of variance. Most of the numbers are between 91 and 89 and are thus very close together and most of the data would be within that small range. The outlier of 60 makes the rance variance go from 60 to 91 when all but 6 percent of the class can be represented between 91 and 89.
To solve this problem you must apply the proccedure shown below:
1. The area of the rectangle is:
Where 
is the width and 
is the length.
2. Based on the data given, solve for the width and then substitute the values of the length and the values of the area. Therefore, you have:
The answer is the second option:
