
we know all it's doing is adding 6 over again to each term to get the next one, so then

now for the explicit one
![\bf n^{th}\textit{ term of an arithmetic sequence} \\\\ a_n=a_1+(n-1)d\qquad \begin{cases} n=n^{th}\ term\\ a_1=\textit{first term's value}\\ d=\textit{common difference}\\[-0.5em] \hrulefill\\ a_1=7\\ d=6 \end{cases} \\\\\\ a_n=7+(n-1)6\implies a_n=7+6n-6\implies \stackrel{\textit{Explicit Formula}}{\stackrel{f(n)}{a_n}=6n+1} \\\\\\ therefore\qquad \qquad f(10)=6(10)+1\implies f(10)=61](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cbf%20n%5E%7Bth%7D%5Ctextit%7B%20term%20of%20an%20arithmetic%20sequence%7D%20%5C%5C%5C%5C%20a_n%3Da_1%2B%28n-1%29d%5Cqquad%20%5Cbegin%7Bcases%7D%20n%3Dn%5E%7Bth%7D%5C%20term%5C%5C%20a_1%3D%5Ctextit%7Bfirst%20term%27s%20value%7D%5C%5C%20d%3D%5Ctextit%7Bcommon%20difference%7D%5C%5C%5B-0.5em%5D%20%5Chrulefill%5C%5C%20a_1%3D7%5C%5C%20d%3D6%20%5Cend%7Bcases%7D%20%5C%5C%5C%5C%5C%5C%20a_n%3D7%2B%28n-1%296%5Cimplies%20a_n%3D7%2B6n-6%5Cimplies%20%5Cstackrel%7B%5Ctextit%7BExplicit%20Formula%7D%7D%7B%5Cstackrel%7Bf%28n%29%7D%7Ba_n%7D%3D6n%2B1%7D%20%5C%5C%5C%5C%5C%5C%20therefore%5Cqquad%20%5Cqquad%20f%2810%29%3D6%2810%29%2B1%5Cimplies%20f%2810%29%3D61)
Answer:
C) 640%
Step-by-step explanation:
6 2/5
Convert it to an improper fraction -
6 2/5 = 32/5
Convert the improper fraction to a decimal -
32/5 = 6.4
Multiply 6.4 by 100
= 640%
Hope this helps :)
Answer:
30 ( I think so)
Step-by-step explanation:
Well, the total measurement 4 a triangle is 90. So 60 and 60 is 120 so it should be 30. If not I am sorry for being wrong.
C would be the answer I think
Answer:
See the proof below.
Step-by-step explanation:
Assuming this complete question: "For each given p, let Z have a binomial distribution with parameters p and N. Suppose that N is itself binomially distributed with parameters q and M. Formulate Z as a random sum and show that Z has a binomial distribution with parameters pq and M."
Solution to the problem
For this case we can assume that we have N independent variables
with the following distribution:
bernoulli on this case with probability of success p, and all the N variables are independent distributed. We can define the random variable Z like this:
From the info given we know that
We need to proof that
by the definition of binomial random variable then we need to show that:


The deduction is based on the definition of independent random variables, we can do this:

And for the variance of Z we can do this:
![Var(Z)_ = E(N) Var(X) + Var (N) [E(X)]^2](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20Var%28Z%29_%20%3D%20E%28N%29%20Var%28X%29%20%2B%20Var%20%28N%29%20%5BE%28X%29%5D%5E2%20)
![Var(Z) =Mpq [p(1-p)] + Mq(1-q) p^2](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20Var%28Z%29%20%3DMpq%20%5Bp%281-p%29%5D%20%2B%20Mq%281-q%29%20p%5E2)
And if we take common factor
we got:
![Var(Z) =Mpq [(1-p) + (1-q)p]= Mpq[1-p +p-pq]= Mpq[1-pq]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20Var%28Z%29%20%3DMpq%20%5B%281-p%29%20%2B%20%281-q%29p%5D%3D%20Mpq%5B1-p%20%2Bp-pq%5D%3D%20Mpq%5B1-pq%5D)
And as we can see then we can conclude that 