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IrinaVladis [17]
3 years ago
7

Write a story to match the equation x + 2 1 2 = 10 . Explain what x represents in your story. Solve the equation. Explain or sho

w your reasoning.
Mathematics
1 answer:
lawyer [7]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: x=5

Step-by-step explanation:

If you break the fraction into a whole number it would be 5 and 10 minus 5 is 5. so x=5

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Can someone be so freaking awesome and help me out with the correct answer please :( !?!?!?!?!???!!! 30 points!!!
Sindrei [870]

\bf 7~~,~~\stackrel{7+6}{13}~~,~~\stackrel{13+6}{19}~~,~~\stackrel{19+6}{25}\qquad \impliedby \qquad \textit{common difference "d" is 6}

we know all it's doing is adding 6 over again to each term to get the next one, so then

\bf \stackrel{\textit{Recursive Formula}}{\stackrel{\textit{nth term}}{f(n)}~~=~~\stackrel{\textit{the term before it}}{f(n-1)}~~~~\stackrel{\textit{plus 6}}{+~~~~6}}

now for the explicit one

\bf n^{th}\textit{ term of an arithmetic sequence} \\\\ a_n=a_1+(n-1)d\qquad \begin{cases} n=n^{th}\ term\\ a_1=\textit{first term's value}\\ d=\textit{common difference}\\[-0.5em] \hrulefill\\ a_1=7\\ d=6 \end{cases} \\\\\\ a_n=7+(n-1)6\implies a_n=7+6n-6\implies \stackrel{\textit{Explicit Formula}}{\stackrel{f(n)}{a_n}=6n+1} \\\\\\ therefore\qquad \qquad f(10)=6(10)+1\implies f(10)=61

3 0
3 years ago
Convert 6 2/5 to a percent?<br><br>A) 6.4%<br>B) 64%<br>C) 640%<br>D) 6,400%​
777dan777 [17]

Answer:

C) 640%

Step-by-step explanation:

6 2/5

Convert it to an improper fraction -

6 2/5 = 32/5

Convert the improper fraction to a decimal -

32/5 = 6.4

Multiply 6.4 by 100

= 640%

Hope this helps :)

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Help fast worth 10points
Nina [5.8K]

Answer:

30 ( I think so)

Step-by-step explanation:

Well, the total measurement 4 a triangle is 90. So 60 and 60 is 120 so it should be 30. If not I am sorry for being wrong.

7 0
3 years ago
I need help with this question.
skad [1K]
C would be the answer I think
5 0
3 years ago
For each given p, let ???? have a binomial distribution with parameters p and ????. Suppose that ???? is itself binomially distr
pshichka [43]

Answer:

See the proof below.

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming this complete question: "For each given p, let Z have a binomial distribution with parameters p and N. Suppose that N is itself binomially distributed with parameters q and M. Formulate Z as a random sum and show that Z has a binomial distribution with parameters pq and M."

Solution to the problem

For this case we can assume that we have N independent variables X_i with the following distribution:

X_i Bin (1,p) = Be(p) bernoulli on this case with probability of success p, and all the N variables are independent distributed. We can define the random variable Z like this:

Z = \sum_{i=1}^N X_i

From the info given we know that N \sim Bin (M,q)

We need to proof that Z \sim Bin (M, pq) by the definition of binomial random variable then we need to show that:

E(Z) = Mpq

Var (Z) = Mpq(1-pq)

The deduction is based on the definition of independent random variables, we can do this:

E(Z) = E(N) E(X) = Mq (p)= Mpq

And for the variance of Z we can do this:

Var(Z)_ = E(N) Var(X) + Var (N) [E(X)]^2

Var(Z) =Mpq [p(1-p)] + Mq(1-q) p^2

And if we take common factor Mpq we got:

Var(Z) =Mpq [(1-p) + (1-q)p]= Mpq[1-p +p-pq]= Mpq[1-pq]

And as we can see then we can conclude that   Z \sim Bin (M, pq)

8 0
3 years ago
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