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3 years ago

Helpp nowww 25 points

Mathematics

2 answers:

yan [13]3 years ago

8 0

Answer: 210

Step-by-step explanation:

fgiga [73]3 years ago

4 0

Answer: Surface area = 197 in²

Step-by-step explanation:

To determine the surface area of the solid shown in the diagram, we would first determine the area of the different faces.

1) It has 2 trapezoidal faces at the front and opposite end, the formula for determining the area of a trapezoid is expressed as

Area = (a + b)h/2

a and b are the length of the bases while h is the height of the trapezoid.

Area of trapezoid = (5 + 9)5/2 = 35 in²

Area of the trapezoid at the opposite end = 35 in²

2) Area of base = 9 × 5 = 45 in²

3) Area of top = 5 × 5 = 25 in²

4) Area of slant face = 6.4 × 5 = 32 in²

5) Area of back = 5 × 5 = 25in²

Surface area of the design is the sum of the area of its faces. It becomes

35 + 35 + 45 + 25 + 32 + 25 = 197in²

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Graph the function. y=2-x

oee [108]

Its the 3rd from the left good luck

4 0

3 years ago

One night Puvi spent 1/3 of his money on dinner and then 1/4 of the remaining money on dessert. He then had just enough left so

arsen [322]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Cost of two tickets = 2 * 30 = £60

Let the amount with Puvi = £x

Money spent on dinner = (1/3)*x

$= \dfrac{1}{3}x$

$Remaining \ money =x - \dfrac{1}{3}x =\dfrac{3}{3}x-\dfrac{1}{3}x=\dfrac{2}{3}x$

$Money \ spent \ on \ dessert = \dfrac{1}{4} *\dfrac{2}{3}x =\dfrac{1}{6}x\\\\\\$

Total money - money spent on dinner - money spent on dessert = 60

$x -\dfrac{1}{3}x -\dfrac{1}{6}x=60\\\\\\\dfrac{6}{6}x-\dfrac{1*2}{3*2}-\dfrac{1}{6}x =60\\\\\\\dfrac{6}{6}x-\dfrac{2}{6}x-\dfrac{1}{6}x=60\\\\\\\dfrac{6-2-1}{12}x=60\\\\\\\dfrac{3}{12}x=60\\\\\\x=60*\dfrac{12}{3}=60*4=240$

Money that Puvi had at the start of the night = £ 240

8 0

2 years ago

Ik rp because the i forgot the sc

Stels [109]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a geometric mean problem...a ratio. The geometric mean is the height of the triangle, 6. To solve:

$\frac{x}{6} =\frac{6}{3}$ and cross multiply to solve for x:

3x = 36 so

x = 12

6 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

DIscrete Math

Daniel [21]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

As the statement is ‘‘if and only if’’ we need to prove two implications

$f : X \rightarrow Y$ is surjective implies there exists a function $h : Y \rightarrow X$ such that $f\circ h = 1_Y$ .
If there exists a function $h : Y \rightarrow X$ such that $f\circ h = 1_Y$ , then $f : X \rightarrow Y$ is surjective

Let us start by the first implication.

Our hypothesis is that the function $f : X \rightarrow Y$ is surjective. From this we know that for every $y\in Y$ there exist, at least, one $x\in X$ such that $y=f(x)$ .

Now, define the sets $X_y = \{x\in X: y=f(x)\}$ . Notice that the set $X_y$ is the pre-image of the element $y$ . Also, from the fact that $f$ is a function we deduce that $X_{y_1}\cap X_{y_2}=\emptyset$ , and because $f$ the sets $X_y$ are no empty.

From each set $X_y$ choose only one element $x_y$ , and notice that $f(x_y)=y$ .

So, we can define the function $h:Y\rightarrow X$ as $h(y)=x_y$ . It is no difficult to conclude that $f\circ h(y) = f(x_y)=y$ . With this we have that $f\circ h=1_Y$ , and the prove is complete.

Now, let us prove the second implication.

We have that there exists a function $h:Y\rightarrow X$ such that $f\circ h=1_Y$ .

Take an element $y\in Y$ , then $f\circ h(y)=y$ . Now, write $x=h(y)$ and notice that $x\in X$ . Also, with this we have that $f(x)=y$ .

So, for every element $y\in Y$ we have found that an element $x\in X$ (recall that $x=h(y)$ ) such that $y=f(x)$ , which is equivalent to the fact that $f$ is surjective. Therefore, the prove is complete.

3 0

3 years ago

CAN ANYONE HELP ME OUT ON THIS QUESTION WITH THE RIGHT Answer

earnstyle [38]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0

3 years ago