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dusya [7]
2 years ago
14

Let X and Y be independent continuous random variables that are uniformly distributed on (0,1). Let H=(X+2)Y. Find the probabili

ty P(lnH≥z) where z is a given number that satisfies ez<2. Your answer should be a function of z.Hint: Condition on X.P(lnH≥z1)= ? Let X be a standard normal random variable, and let FX(x) be its CDF. Consider the random variable Z=FX(X). Find the PDF fZ(z) of Z. Note that fZ(z) takes values in (0,1) .fZ(z)= ?
Mathematics
1 answer:
belka [17]2 years ago
4 0

Looks like there are two distinct problems here.

  • "Let X and Y be independent ..."

P(\ln H\ge z)=P(\ln((X+2)Y)\ge z)=P((X+2)Y\ge e^z)=P\left(Y\ge\dfrac{e^z}{X+2}\right)

Conditioning on X involves interpreting this probability for all possible fixed values of X=x:

P\left(Y\ge\dfrac{e^z}{X+2}\right)=\displaystyle\int_xP\left(Y\ge\dfrac{e^z}{X+2}\text{ and }X=x\right)

P\left(Y\ge\dfrac{e^z}{X+2}\right)=\displaystyle\int_xP\left(Y\ge\dfrac{e^z}{X+2}\mid X=x\right)P(X=x)

We have x\in(0,1), and over this domain P(X=x)=1. Since X=x is fixed, we can omit the conditioning notation to leave us with

P\left(Y\ge\dfrac{e^z}{X+2}\right)=\displaystyle\int_0^1P\left(Y\ge\dfrac{e^z}{x+2}\right)\,\mathrm dx

Y has CDF

P(Y\le y)=F_Y(y)=\begin{cases}0&\text{for }y1\end{cases}

Then we can write our integral as

P\left(Y\ge\dfrac{e^z}{X+2}\right)=\displaystyle\int_0^1\left(1-F_Y\left(\frac{e^z}{x+2}\right)\right)\,\mathrm dx

P\left(Y\ge\dfrac{e^z}{X+2}\right)=\displaystyle\int_0^1\left(1-\frac{e^z}{x+2}\right)\,\mathrm dx

P\left(Y\ge\dfrac{e^z}{X+2}\right)=x-e^z\ln(x+2)\bigg|_{x=0}^{x=1}

P\left(Y\ge\dfrac{e^z}{X+2}\right)=\boxed{1-e^z(\ln2-\ln3)}

  • "Let X be a standard normal ..."

Using the method of distribution functions, we have

F_Z(z)=P(Z\le z)=P(F_X(X)\le z)=P(X\le {F_X}^{-1}(z))=F_X({F_X}^{-1}(z))=z

\implies\boxed{f_Z(z)=\begin{cases}1&\text{for }z\in(0,1)\\0&\text{otherwise}\end{cases}}

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The set of the consecutive odd numbers 1, 3, 5, 7, ... , N has a sum of 400. How many numbers are in the set?
Amanda [17]

Well, we could try adding up odd numbers, and look to see when we reach 400. But I'm hoping to find an easier way.

First of all ... I'm not sure this will help, but let's stop and notice it anyway ...
An odd number of odd numbers (like 1, 3, 5) add up to an odd number, but
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Now, let's put down an even number of odd numbers to work with,and see
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         1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11, 13, 15 .

Number of items in the set . . . 8
Sum of all the items in the set . . . 64

Hmmm.  That's interesting.  64 happens to be the square of 8 . 
Do you think that might be all there is to it ?

Let's check it out:

Even-numbered lists of odd numbers:

1, 3                                   Items = 2, Sum = 4
1, 3, 5, 7                           Items = 4, Sum = 16
1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11                 Items = 6, Sum = 36
1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11, 13, 15 . . Items = 8, Sum = 64 .

Amazing !  The sum is always the square of the number of items in the set !

For a sum of 400 ... which just happens to be the square of 20,
we just need the <em><u>first 20 consecutive odd numbers</u></em>.

I slogged through it on my calculator, and it's true.

I never knew this before.  It seems to be something valuable
to keep in my tool-box (and cherish always).


3 0
3 years ago
What’s the value of x?
iogann1982 [59]

Answer:

X=8

Step-by-step explanation:

Opposite side angles on the transversal are congruent.

SO 6x-2=46

46+2=48

48/6=8

X=8

3 0
2 years ago
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