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Complete the following statements.

stiv31 [10]

Answer:

A soda bottle contains 2 liters of liquid. Therefore:

The soda bottle contains 67.62 fluid ounces of liquid.

The soda bottle contains 0.525 gallons of liquid.

2) A milk jug contains 2 gallons of milk. Therefore:

The milk jug contains 8 quarts of milk.

The milk jug contains 7.6 liters of milk.

Step-by-step explanation:

We need to complete the statements.

1)

A soda bottle contains 2 liters of liquid. Therefore:

The soda bottle contains ------- fluid ounces of liquid.

Converting Liters to fluid ounces

We know that 1 liter = 33.81 fluid ounces

So, 2 liter = 2 x 33.81 = 67.62 fluid ounces

The soda bottle contains 67.62 fluid ounces of liquid.

The soda bottle contains gallons of liquid.

Converting liters to gallons

As, we are not given direct conversion from liters to gallons, first we convert liter to quarts and then convert quarts to gallons

We know that

1 liter = 1.05 quarts

2 liters = 2 x 1.05 = 2.1 quarts

4 quarts = 1 gallon

1 quarts = 1/4 gallon

2.1 quarts = 1/4 * 2.1 = 0.525 gallon

The soda bottle contains 0.525 gallons of liquid.

2)

A milk jug contains 2 gallons of milk. Therefore:

The milk jug contains -------- quarts of milk.

Converting gallons to quarts

We know:

1 gallon = 4 quarts

2 gallons = 2 x 4 = 8 quarts

The milk jug contains 8 quarts of milk.

The milk jug contains ------ liters of milk.

Converting gallons to liters

We know:

1 gallon = 4 quarts

2 gallon = 8 quarts

1.05 quarts = 1 liter

1 quarts = 1/1.05 liter

8 quarts = 1/1.05 * 8 = 7.6 liter

The milk jug contains 7.6 liters of milk.

6 0

2 years ago

Derivatives of inverse trigonometric functions please explain answers

Jobisdone [24]

I'll explain how to do the first one:-

y = cos-1(x2)

This can be described as ' a function of a function' x^2 is a function of x and cos-1(x^2) is a function of x^2.

We need to apply the chain rule.

Personally I find this easier to understand if i let u = x^2, so

If y = f(u) and u is a function of x then

dy/dx = dy/ du * du/dx

Here u = x^2 and y = cos-1(u)

du/dx = 2x

so dy/dx = d(cos-1(x^2) dx = dy/du * du/dx

= -1 / √(1 - u^2) * 2x

= -2x / √(1 - u^2)

= -2x / √(1 - (x^2)^2)

= -2x / √(1 - x^4)

I hope this helps. but if not. you might like to employ the formulae in the question - The square boxes contain the 'u' s in my answer. These formulae are equivalent to my explanation.

6 0

3 years ago

Is 1.0277 a rational number

ch4aika [34]

<h2>Answer:</h2><h2>Its rational</h2>

<h2>Hope this helps!!</h2>

8 0

2 years ago

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Find an equation in standard form for the ellipse with the vertical major axis of length 16 and minor axis of length 10. (5 poin

VladimirAG [237]

Answer:

<em>The answer is</em> <em><u>x squared divided by 8 plus squared divided by 5=1 </u></em>

Hope this helps :)

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

The first four ionization energies in kj/mol of a certain second- row element are 900, 1757, 14,849, and 21,007. what is the lik

ki77a [65]

Answer:<em> Berylium (Be)</em>

Step-by-step explanation:

The <em>first ionisation energy</em> is the energy required to remove one mole of the outermost electrons from one mole of gaseous atoms.

<em />

<em> Second, third, and fourth ionisation</em> energies are the energies required to remove the succesive mole of electrons of the same atoms

Successive ionisation energies are larger because, <em>once you have removed the first electron you get a positive ion</em>. Removing an electron (which is a negative charge) from a positive ion is more difficult than removing it from the neutral atom. And removing an electron from an ion with 2⁺ or 3⁺ charges is increasingly difficult.

When you find a large jump from one inoization energy to the succesive one you can predict that you are removing an electron from a closer to the nucleus orbital.

Berylium has atomic number 4. So, the number of electrons of the neutral atom is also 4. Hence, the electron configuration of beryllium is 1s² 2s².

From the given data, <em>the first four ionization energies in kJ/mol are 900, 1757, 14,849, and 21,007</em>.

From that you can calculate the following changes in the ionization energies:

From first to second: 1,757 kJ/mol - 900 kJ/mol = 857 kJ/mol

From second to third: 14,849 kJ/mol - 1,757kJ/mol = 13,092 kJ/mol

From third to fourth: 21,007 kJ/mol - 14,849 kJ/mol = 6,158 kJ/mol

And now you can see that there is a larger jump in the energy, a greater change, required to remove the third electron.

That is explained because the first and second electron are removed from the orbital 2s while the third electron has to be removed from the orbital 1s which is closer to the nucleus. This third electron is more strongly attracted by the nucleus and substantially more energy is required to accomplish this work.

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers