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3 years ago

In the diagram of a quadrilateral below, the variables represent the length of the sides in inches.

1 answer:

4 0

Add 11 + 16. Plug in 11 into b-2 since b equals eleven. You should now have 11+16+11-2. Do the same thing and plug in 16 for c and 11 for b for c-b. Your solution will now be 11+16+11-2+16-11.

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2(x+16)= 6x please help me :)

jeka94

Let solve:

$2(x+16) = 6x\\2x + 32 = 6x\\32 = 4x\\4x = 32\\x = 8$

Thus x = 8

Hope that helps!

5 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

What is 15/5? for math points

Leni [432]

Answer:

ohhh

Step-by-step explanation:

3 number 3 I know that is the answer

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Select the correct answer.

Digiron [165]

C because if you plug one into the other the answer comes out as x and that is how you know it is an inverse

7 0

2 years ago

Help plzzz thank you !

VashaNatasha [74]

Answer:

a. Ameribank-$15,157.50

b. Capital Two-$4,646.25

Step-by-step explanation:

a. Tad's savings is $15,000, we calculate his total amount at the end of the year for each bank:

#Ameribank

$A=P+I=P+PRT\\\\=15000+15000\times 0.0105\times 1\\\\=\$15,157.50$

#Huffington( we use the effective rate to calculate the compound amount):

$i_m=(1+i/m)^m-1\\\\=(1+0.0095/12)^[12}-1=0.009541\\\\A=P(1+i_m)^n\\\\=15000(1.009541)^1\\\\=\$15,143.12$

#Sixth-Third, Take 1 yrs=52 weeks:

$i_m=(1+i/m)^m-1\\\\=(1+0.01/52)^{52}-1=0.01005\\\\A=15000(1.01005)^1\\\\=\$15,150.74$

#Hence, Ameribank is the best option as his money grows to $15,157.50 which is greater than all the remaining two options.

b. We use the compound interest formula $A=P(1+r/n)^{nt}$ to determine which bank gives the best option:

#Capital Two. r=3.75%, n=12,t=4

$A=P(1+r/n)^{nt}\\\\=4000(1+0.0375/12)^{12\times4}\\\\=\$4,646.25$

#J.C Morgan, t=2, r=3.55% n=12

$A=P(1+r/n)^{nt}\\\\=4000(1+0.0355/12)^{12\times 2}\\\\=\$4,293.87$

#Silverman Slacks, n=12,t=3, r=3.65%

$A=P(1+r/n)^{nt}\\\\=4000(1+0.0365/12)^{12\times3}\\\\=\$4,462.14$

We compare the investment amounts after t years:

$Capital>Silver>Morgan=4646.25>4462.14>4293.87$

Hence, Capital two is the best option with an investment amount of $4,646.25

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

-5/7÷30/-4 What is the full explanation on how to work out this problem?

jasenka [17]

Answer:

1/168

Step-by-step explanation:

First, solve for the numerator.

-5/7÷30

-5/7÷30/1

(use keep, change flip)

-5/7x1/30=-5/210

-5/210=-1/42

Now use keep change flip again

-1/42÷-4/1

-1/42*-1/4=1/168

8 0

3 years ago