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anygoal [31]
3 years ago
13

Where might you find a repeating decimal ?

Mathematics
1 answer:
mezya [45]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: Fraction or pi

Step-by-step explanation: Example being 1/3

You might be interested in
32.8 + # = 100 <br><br> What is #?
Marrrta [24]

Answer:

67.2

Step-by-step explanation:

You take 100 and minus 32.8

it is the same as  10minus 8 is 2 so we right the 2. then 9-2 is 7. and 9-3 is 6

    99.(1)0

-

    32.8

---------------

    67.2            

5 0
3 years ago
400 lbs = ? Tons and 38,600 mg = ? dekagrams
garik1379 [7]
400 lbs = 0.2 tons

38,600 mg = 3.86 dekagrams

Hope it helps!
3 0
3 years ago
In order to have 1 million dollars in 40 years with an annual interest rate of 11.6%, I will have to invest $_ (round to the nea
tino4ka555 [31]
To solve the problem we use the compound formula given by:
A=p(1+r/100)^n
where:
A=future amount:
p=principle
r=rate
A=1000000, r=11.6%, n=40
plugging the value in the formula we get:
1000000=p(1+11.6/100)^40
solving for p we get:
1000000=80.6432p
p=12400.300
rounding to the nearest 1000 we get
p=$12000
Answer: 
<span>A.) 12,000</span>
3 0
3 years ago
Please help me on this geometry!! i’ll mark you the brainliest
Gnoma [55]

Answer:

Median

Step-by-step explanation:

A median of a triangle is a line segment joining a vertex to the midpoint of the opposite side.

Hope this helps! Please tell me if I did anything wrong, thank you and have a great day!

4 0
3 years ago
Suppose you decided to keep flipping a coin until tails came up, at which
MAVERICK [17]

Answer:

B. 6.3%

Step-by-step explanation:

For each time that the coin is tosse, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it comes up tails, or it does not. The probability of coming up tails on a toss is independent of any other toss. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

Fair coin:

Equally as likely to come up heads or tails, so p = 0.5

Probability that the first tails comes up on the 4th flip of the coin?

0 tails during the first three, which is P(X = 0) when n = 3.

Tails in the fourth, with probability 0.5. So

p = 0.5P(X = 0)

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

p = 0.5P(X = 0) = 0.5*(C_{3,0}.(0.5)^{0}.(0.5)^{3}) = 0.0625

0.0625 * 100 = 6.25%

Rounding to the nearest tenth of a percent, the correct answer is:

B. 6.3%

4 0
3 years ago
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