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Alona [7]
4 years ago
7

Highfill Corporation's variable overhead is applied on the basis of direct labor-hours. The standard cost card for product D80D

specifies 6.5 direct labor-hours per unit of D80D. The standard variable overhead rate is $6.80 per direct labor-hour. During the most recent month, 1,300 units of product D80D were made and 8,500 direct labor-hours were worked. The actual variable overhead incurred was $60,290.
Required:

A. What was the variable overhead rate variance for the month?

B. What was the variable overhead efficiency variance for the month?
Business
1 answer:
tresset_1 [31]4 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Instructions are below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Standard direct labor hour per unit= 6.5 hours

Standard variable overhead= $6.8 per direct labor hour.

Actual production= 1,300 units

Actual direct labor hours= 8,500 hours

Actual variable overhead= $60,290

A) To calculate the variable overhead rate variance, we need to use the following formula:

Manufacturing overhead rate variance= (standard rate - actual rate)* actual quantity

Actual rate= 60,290/8,500 hours= $7.093

Manufacturing overhead rate variance= (6.8 - 7.093)*8,500= $2,490.5 unfavorable

B) To calculate the variable overhead efficiency variance, we need to use the following formula:

variable overhead efficiency variance= (Standard Quantity - Actual Quantity)*Standard rate

Standard quantity= 1,300*6.5= 8,450 hours

variable overhead efficiency variance= (8,450 - 8,500)*6.8= $340 unfavorable

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Answer:

Switching costs

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5 0
2 years ago
Suppose a stock had an initial price of $54 per share, paid a dividend of $1.30 per share during the year, and had an ending sha
ioda

Answer:

Use the equation for total return:

total stock return= (P1-P0)+D/P0

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3 years ago
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Answer:

0 i.e. zero

Explanation:

The formula we will us to calculate the cash option payout​ for formula for calculating the present value (PV) .

Present value (PV) can simply be described as the current value of a future amount or future stream of cash flows given a certain return rate.

To calculate the PV of a future cash flow, we will discount it by using the discount rate.

The formula is provided as follows:

PV = FV/(1 + r)^n ............................................ (1)

Where,

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n = number of years = 2222 years

Note that the annual future value calculated by diving the $1919 million by 2222 years and this give us $863,636.36 (i.e.  1,919,000,000 ÷ 2222 = $863,636.36).

Substituting the figures above into equation (1), we obtain:

PV = 863,636.36/(1 + 0.66)^2222

     = 863,636.36/(1.66)^2222

     = 863,636.36/∞

PV = 0

This is because, the division of any number by infinity is equal to zero. And if we multiply by zero by 2222, it will still give us zero PV.

Therefore, the cash option payout​ will be zero. It is better the winner take the option of collecting $863,636.36.

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Answer:

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(These are 2 characteristics of property rights)

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