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Alona [7]
3 years ago
7

Highfill Corporation's variable overhead is applied on the basis of direct labor-hours. The standard cost card for product D80D

specifies 6.5 direct labor-hours per unit of D80D. The standard variable overhead rate is $6.80 per direct labor-hour. During the most recent month, 1,300 units of product D80D were made and 8,500 direct labor-hours were worked. The actual variable overhead incurred was $60,290.
Required:

A. What was the variable overhead rate variance for the month?

B. What was the variable overhead efficiency variance for the month?
Business
1 answer:
tresset_1 [31]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Instructions are below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Standard direct labor hour per unit= 6.5 hours

Standard variable overhead= $6.8 per direct labor hour.

Actual production= 1,300 units

Actual direct labor hours= 8,500 hours

Actual variable overhead= $60,290

A) To calculate the variable overhead rate variance, we need to use the following formula:

Manufacturing overhead rate variance= (standard rate - actual rate)* actual quantity

Actual rate= 60,290/8,500 hours= $7.093

Manufacturing overhead rate variance= (6.8 - 7.093)*8,500= $2,490.5 unfavorable

B) To calculate the variable overhead efficiency variance, we need to use the following formula:

variable overhead efficiency variance= (Standard Quantity - Actual Quantity)*Standard rate

Standard quantity= 1,300*6.5= 8,450 hours

variable overhead efficiency variance= (8,450 - 8,500)*6.8= $340 unfavorable

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The process of asset transformation refers to the conversion of:_______
kondaur [170]

Answer: c. Risky assets into safer assets

Explanation:

The process of asset transformation refers to the conversion of risky assets into safer assets. Asset transformationa is simply a form of transformation in which financial institutions like banks use deposits in the generation of revenue through the pooling deposits in order to make loans. It has to do with transforming bank liabilities into bank assets.

6 0
3 years ago
Matt inherited as a trust a fifteen-year annuity-immediate with annual payments. He has been told that the annuity payments earn
Pavel [41]

Answer:

effective annual interest rate = 6.32%

annual payment = $1,585

Explanation:

I believe that this is an ordinary annuity, so we can use the future and present value of an ordinary annuity formula:

FV = annual payment x FV annuity factor, so annual payment = FV / FV annuity factor

PV = annual payment x PV annuity factor, so annual payment = PV / PV annuity factor

we can equal both equations:

PV / PV annuity factor = FV / FV annuity factor

FV / PV = FV annuity factor / PV annuity factor

$37,804.39 / $15,077.10 = FV annuity factor / PV annuity factor

2.5074 = FV annuity factor / PV annuity factor

the easiest way to solve this is to use an annuity table since we already know that there are 15 periods (I used an excel spreadsheet):

%,15 periods      FV annuity factor     PV annuity factor        FV/PV

1                                 16.097                   13.865                      1.1609

2                                17.293                   12.849                      1.34586

3                                18.599                    11.938                      1.55797

4                               20.024                     11.118                       1.80104

5                                21.579                   10.380                      2.07890

<u>6                               23.276                   9.7122                       2.3966</u>

<u>7                                25.129                   9.1079                       2.7590</u>

8                                27.152                   8.5595                       3.1721

9                                29.361                   8.0607                      3.6425

10                               31.772                   7.6061                         4.4112

The interest rate must be between 6 and 7%:

%,15 periods      FV annuity factor     PV annuity factor        FV/PV

6                               23.276                   9.7122                       2.3966

6.1                             23.45404              9.6461                       2.43145

6.2                            23.63369              9.5858                      2.46549

6.3                            23.81491               9.52467                     2.50034

6.31                           23.83312               9.51851                     2.50387

<u>6.32                          23.85135               9.51236                     2.5074</u>

6.4                            23.99773              9.46337                     2.53585

effective interest rate = 6.32% per year

annual payment = $37,804.39 / 23.85135 = $1,585

           

6 0
3 years ago
In January, Hometown Ice Cream Shoppe reported the following balances in their income statement accounts. Based on this informat
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Answer:

A) Debit of $1,445

Explanation:

Closing entries refers to the balance statements that are entered at the end of an accounting period in order to transfer the temporary account balances into permanent accounts. Based on the balances listed in the question it can be said that the closing entry to retained earnings will be Debit of $1,445. This refers to money going out of the account and can be calculated by adding all the revenue to the account and subtracting the expenses leaving $ - 1,445 thus being debit.

7 0
3 years ago
Mesia has come to you for help. For the third time this month, she has recorded a cash receipt twice. She wants you to record a
gayaneshka [121]

Answer:

Any adjustment section in the Accounts ought to be assessed and ought to be endorsed by the controller before posting it. The supporting clear archive to be delivered and held with the voucher for review reason.  

Here, the case is money receipt is recorded twice, and requirements to book revising passage. Necessities to examine about the section, and need to cross check with money equalization and deals balance, Cash receipt number etc.to ensure this is a real case and ensure no fraud is occurring.

4 0
3 years ago
The Miller family owns and operates an interior decorating business. Henry installs hardwood floors and chair rails; Chloe reuph
oksian1 [2.3K]

Answer:

A. specialization.

Explanation:

Specialization refers to dividing the job in different tasks and assigning a person to perform each one which makes that each person becomes an expert in the specific area. This could help to increase productivity, especially in manufacturing. This is the process the Miller family uses because they have divided the tasks and assigned each of them to a person.

4 0
3 years ago
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