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creativ13 [48]
3 years ago
9

Kingbird, Inc. uses the percentage-of-receivables basis to record bad debt expense and concludes that 3% of accounts receivable

will become uncollectible. Accounts receivable are $429,500 at the end of the year, and the allowance for doubtful accounts has a credit balance of $2,950. (a) Prepare the adjusting journal entry to record bad debt expense for the year. (b) If the allowance for doubtful accounts had a debit balance of $870 instead of a credit balance of $2,950, prepare the adjusting journal entry for bad debt expense.
Business
1 answer:
antoniya [11.8K]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

(a) The adjusting journal entry to record bad debt expense for the year:

Debit Bad debt expense  $5,640

Credit Allowance for doubtful accounts  $5,640

<em>(To record bad debt expense)</em>

(b) If the allowance for doubtful accounts had a debit balance of $870 instead of a credit balance of $2,950, The appropriate journal entries are:

Debit Bad debt expense $9,460

Credit Allowance for doubtful accounts  $9,460

<em>(To record bad debt expense)</em>

Explanation:

To arrive at the bad debt expense for Kingbird, Inc., we simply need to calculate 3% of accounts receivable, as follows:

2% of $429,500 = $8,590

Since the allowance for doubtful accounts has a credit balance of $2,950, the bad debt expense will be: $8,590 - $2,950 = $5,640. The appropriate journal entries are as provided above.

However, if the allowance for doubtful accounts had a debit balance of $870 instead of a credit balance of $2,950, the bad debt expense will be: $8,590 + $870 = $9,460. The addition is necessary in order to reinstate the allowance account to $8,590. The appropriate journal entries are as provided above.

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If the company were to issue an annual zero-coupon bond with a maturity of 2 years and par value of $1,000, what would be the ar
Contact [7]

Answer:

Note: <em>The complete question is attached as picture below</em>

1a. The one year spot rate can be calculated using the one year zero bond.

PV * (1 + S1) = FV

1 + S1 = 1000 / 900

S1 = 1.1111 - 1

S1 = 0.1111  

S1 = 11.11%

1b. PV of the 2 year bond = $950

Annual coupon = 1000 * 5% = $50

950 = 50 / (1 + S1) + (50 + 1000) / (1 + S2)^2

950 = 50 / 1.1111 + 1,050 / (1 + S2)^2

1,050/ (1 + S2)^2 = 950 - 45 = 905

(1 + S2)^2 = 1050 / 905

1 + S2 = 1.160221/2

S2 = 7.714%

1c. Price of the 2 year zero bond = 1,000 / (1 + 0.07714)^2

Price of the 2 year zero bond = 1,000 / 1.1602

Price of the 2 year zero bond = 861.9203586

Price of the 2 year zero bond = $861.92

3 0
2 years ago
"on may 1, mesa verde, inc. purchased a 2-year insurance policy for $15,600. prepaid insurance was debited for the entire amount
N76 [4]

The journal entry on May 1 was:

A debit to Prepaid Insurance for 15,600


And a credit to cash for 15,600

 

Prepaid Insurance is the share of an insurance premium that has been paid in early and has not finished as of the balance sheet date.

The monthly insurance payment for two years is computed by 15,600/24 months which is $650 per month.

 

At December 31 the adjusting entry would be:

A debit to Insurance Expense 5,200

And a credit to Prepaid Insurance for 5,200

 

5,200 is computed by:

650 x 8 months (starting from May 1 to December 31) = 5,200

5 0
3 years ago
What is total amount spent on wages and salary before any tax is being taken? [those ernings above £40000 are paying 40% income
vodka [1.7K]

Answer: hello your question is open ended hence I will give you a more general answer

answer : $12,000 * number of workers  or $24,000 * number of workers

Explanation:

Income taxes are taxes been levied directly on the  income earned by the tax payer.

According to Tax rules there is a certain amount of income an individual would have to earned before any tax will be taken, incomes below $12,000  are tax free ( for singles ) and $24,000 for married individuals ; Hence the Total amount spent on wages and salary before tax is being taken = $12,000 * number of workers or $24,000 * number of workers . ( unless otherwise stated )

3 0
3 years ago
Vijay Inc. purchased a 3-acre tract of land for a building site for $420,000. On the land was a building with an appraised value
PtichkaEL [24]

Answer:

$433,900

Explanation:

The computation of the capitalized cost of the land is shown below:-

Capitalized cost of the land = Purchase price + Demolition of building + Title insurance + Attorney fee + Property taxes covered during the period - Scrap value from the building

= $420,000 + $12,000 + $900 + ($3,000 - $500) - $1,500

= $420,000 + $12,000 + $900 + $2,500 - $1,500

= $435,400 - $1,500

= $433,900

5 0
3 years ago
Bruce Corporation makes four products in a single facility. These products have the following unit product costs:
VladimirAG [237]

Answer:

The correct answer is option (D).

Explanation:

According to the scenario, computation of the given data are as follows:

Variable cost = Direct material + Direct labor + Variable manufacturing overhead + Variable selling cost per unit

Variable cost of product A =    $17.30 + $19.30 + $6.10 + $3.05 = $45.75

Variable cost of product B =   $21.20 + $22.70 + $7.30 + $3.75 = $54.95

Variable cost of product C =   $14.20 + $17.10 + $9.80 + $4.50 = $45.60

Variable cost of product D =   $16.90 + $11.10 + $6.80 + $5.20 = $40

Contribution per unit (CPU) = selling price per unit – variable cost  

Product A CPU = $87.20 - $45.75 = $41.45

Product B CPU = $79.60 - $54.95 = $24.65

Product C CPU = $76.40 - $45.60 = $30.8

Product D CPU = $71.10 - $40 = $31.10

Contribution per grinding minutes (CPGM)  = CPU ÷ contribution per grinding minutes

CPGM of Product A = $41.45 ÷ 2.30 = $18.02

CPGM of Product B = $24.65 ÷ 1.35 = $18.26

CPGM of Product C = $30.8 ÷ 0.90 = $34.22

CPGM of Product D = $31.10 ÷ 1.20 = $25.92

According to the analysis, Product C makes the most profitable use of grinding machine. Because it’s give the highest contribution per grinding minutes.

7 0
3 years ago
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