I believe the answer is Time management
Answer:
future worth:
project A 11,615.26
project B 12,139.18
It should choose project B as their future value is greater
IRR of project A: 13.54%
We should remember that the IRR is the rate at which the net value is zero thus, equals the inflow with the cash outlay
It is calculate with excel or financial calculator due to the complex of the formula.
Explanation:
Project A
We calculate the future value of the cash flow per year and cost as we are asked for future value. The salvage value is already at the end of the project life so we don't adjust it.
Revenues future value
C 15,000
time 8
rate 0.12
FV $184,495.3970
Expenses future value
C 3,000
time 10
rate 0.12
FV $52,646.2052
Cost future value
Principal 40,000.00
time 10.00
rate 0.12000
Amount 124,233.93
Net future worth:
-124,233.93 cost - 52,646.21 expenses + 184,495.40 revenues + 4,000 salvage value
future worth 11,615.26
Project B
cost:
Principal 60,000.00
time 10.00
rate 0.12000
Amount 186,350.89
expenses 52,646.21 (same as previous)
revenues
C 24,000
time 7
rate 0.12
FV $242,136.2815
TOTAL
242,136.28 + 9,000 - 52,646.21 - 186,350.89 = 12,139.18
Internal rate of return of project A
we write the time and cash flow for each period.
Time Cash flow
0 -40,000
1 -3,000
2 -3,000
3 12,000
4 12,000
5 12,000
6 12,000
7 12,000
8 12,000
9 12,000
10 16,000
IRR 13.54%
Then we write on excel the function =IRR(select the cashflow)
and we got the IRR of the project
If aggregate demand in the long run is falling for several months in a row, it will make aggregate market results in an increase in the price level but no change in real production. The level of real production resulting from the aggregate demand shock is full-employment real production.
Aggregate demand can be described as a measurement of the total amount of demand for all finished services and goods produced in an economy. Aggregate demand is expressed as the total amount of money exchanged for those services and goods at a specific point in time and price level.
The model of aggregate demand and long-run aggregate supply predicts that the economy will eventually move toward its potential output. To see how nominal wage and price stickiness can cause real GDP to be either above or below potential in the short run, consider the response of the economy to a change in aggregate demand.
Learn more about aggregate demand in the link brainly.com/question/14375684
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Answer:Inventory turnover = 3.50 Times
Number of days sales in inventory= 94.5 Days
Accounts Receivable Turnover = 21.5 Times
Number of days sales in accounts receivable =12.5 days
Explanation:
a) Inventory turnover = Cost of goods sold / Average inventory
$609,550 / $174,000 = 3.50 Times
b)Number of days sales in inventory = inventory at year end / Cost of goods sold x 365
$157,800 / $609,550 x 365 = 94.49≈94.5 Days
.
c)Accounts Receivable Turnover = Net sales / Average accounts Receivable for the year
$857,750/$39,900 = 21.49≈ 21.5 Times
d)Number of days sales in accounts receivable = end of year Accounts Receivable / Net credit sales x 365
$29,400 / $857,750 x 365 = 12.51 ≈ 12.5 days