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alisha [4.7K]
3 years ago
10

Daffodil Incorporated manufactures two types of vases, small and large. The following per unit data are available: Small Vase La

rge Vase Sales price $60 $100 Variable costs $35 $60 Machine hours required for 1 vase 1 2 Total fixed costs are $600,000 and Daffodil Incorporated can sell a maximum of 25,000 units of each type of vase annually. Machine hour capacity is 50,000 hours per year. Complete the following, showing your work for credit: Determine the contribution margin per unit for each type of vase.
Business
1 answer:
jeka943 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Instructions are below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Small Vase:

Sales price= $60

Variable costs= $35

Large Vase

Sales price= $100

Variable costs= $60

<u>The contribution margin per unit is calculated by deducting from the selling price the unitary variable cost.</u>

Small Vase:

Contribution margin= 60 - 35= $25

Large Vase:

Contribution margin= 100 - 60= $40

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Which workplace trait means fulfilling your commitments in time or in advance?
Drupady [299]
I believe the answer is Time management
6 0
3 years ago
Your​ company, which has a MARR of​ 12%, is considering the following two investment​ alternatives:
mote1985 [20]

Answer:

future worth:

project A  11,615.26

project B  12,139.18‬

It should choose project B as their future value is greater

IRR of project A: 13.54%

We should remember that the IRR is the rate at which the net value is zero thus, equals the inflow with the cash outlay

It is calculate with excel or financial calculator due to the complex of the formula.

Explanation:

Project A

We calculate the future value of the cash flow per year and cost as we are asked for future value. The salvage value is already at the end of the project life so we don't adjust it.

Revenues future value

C \times \frac{(1+r)^{time} -1}{rate} = FV\\  

C 15,000

time 8

rate 0.12

15000 \times \frac{(1+0.12)^{8} -1}{0.12} = FV\\  

FV $184,495.3970  

Expenses future value

C \times \frac{(1+r)^{time} -1}{rate} = FV\\

C 3,000

time 10

rate 0.12

3000 \times \frac{(1+0.12)^{10} -1}{0.12} = FV\\  

FV $52,646.2052  

Cost future value

Principal \: (1+ r)^{time} = Amount  

Principal 40,000.00

time 10.00

rate 0.12000

40000 \: (1+ 0.12)^{10} = Amount  

Amount 124,233.93

Net future worth:

-124,233.93 cost - 52,646.21 expenses + 184,495.40 revenues + 4,000 salvage value

future worth 11,615.26

Project B

cost:

Principal \: (1+ r)^{time} = Amount  

Principal 60,000.00

time 10.00

rate 0.12000

60000 \: (1+ 0.12)^{10} = Amount  

Amount 186,350.89

expenses 52,646.21 (same as previous)

revenues

C \times \frac{(1+r)^{time} }{rate} = FV\\  

C 24,000

time 7

rate 0.12

24000 \times \frac{(1+0.12)^{7} -1}{0.12} = FV\\  

FV $242,136.2815  

TOTAL

242,136.28 + 9,000 - 52,646.21 - 186,350.89 = 12,139.18‬

Internal rate of return of project A

we write the time and cash flow for each period.

Time Cash flow

0 -40,000

1 -3,000

2 -3,000

3 12,000

4 12,000

5 12,000

6 12,000

7 12,000

8 12,000

9 12,000

10 16,000

IRR 13.54%

Then we write on excel the function =IRR(select the cashflow)

and we got the IRR of the project

6 0
3 years ago
suppose that aggregate demand is falling for several months in a row. describe how the economy will adjust in the long run.
Salsk061 [2.6K]

If aggregate demand in the long run is falling for several months in a row, it will make aggregate market results in an increase in the price level but no change in real production. The level of real production resulting from the aggregate demand shock is full-employment real production.

Aggregate demand can be described as a measurement of the total amount of demand for all finished services and goods produced in an economy. Aggregate demand is expressed as the total amount of money exchanged for those services and goods at a specific point in time and price level.

The model of aggregate demand and long-run aggregate supply predicts that the economy will eventually move toward its potential output. To see how nominal wage and price stickiness can cause real GDP to be either above or below potential in the short run, consider the response of the economy to a change in aggregate demand.

Learn more about aggregate demand in the link brainly.com/question/14375684

#SPJ4

4 0
1 year ago
people on here are tr0lling so I'm giving fr33 points to people who have been tr0lled, have a nice day. :)​
eimsori [14]

Answer:

thx

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The following information was available for the year ended December 31, 2016: Net sales $ 857,750 Cost of goods sold 609,550 Ave
mario62 [17]

Answer:Inventory turnover = 3.50 Times

Number of days sales in inventory= 94.5 Days

Accounts Receivable Turnover = 21.5 Times

Number of days sales in accounts receivable =12.5 days

Explanation:

a) Inventory turnover  = Cost of goods sold / Average inventory

$609,550 / $174,000 = 3.50 Times

b)Number of days sales in inventory = inventory at year end / Cost of goods sold x 365

$157,800 / $609,550  x 365 = 94.49≈94.5 Days

.

c)Accounts Receivable Turnover  = Net sales / Average accounts Receivable  for the year

$857,750/$39,900 = 21.49≈ 21.5 Times

d)Number of days sales in accounts receivable = end of year Accounts Receivable / Net credit sales x 365

$29,400 / $857,750  x  365 = 12.51 ≈ 12.5 days

8 0
3 years ago
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