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Drupady [299]
2 years ago
14

Point V lies between points U and W on Line segment U W.

Mathematics
2 answers:
Whitepunk [10]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

36

just took the quiz

Nutka1998 [239]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The correct answer is (d) 36 units.

Step-by-step explanation:

Just took the test on edge :)

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Explain why each of the following integrals is improper. (a) 4 x x − 3 dx 3 Since the integral has an infinite interval of integ
erma4kov [3.2K]

Answer:

a

   Since the integral has an infinite discontinuity, it is a Type 2 improper integral

b

   Since the integral has an infinite interval of integration, it is a Type 1 improper integral

c

  Since the integral has an infinite interval of integration, it is a Type 1 improper integral

d

     Since the integral has an infinite discontinuity, it is a Type 2 improper integral

Step-by-step explanation:

Considering  a

          \int\limits^4_3 {\frac{x}{x- 3} } \, dx

Looking at this we that at x = 3   this  integral will be  infinitely discontinuous

Considering  b    

        \int\limits^{\infty}_0 {\frac{1}{1 + x^3} } \, dx

Looking at this integral we see that the interval is between 0 \ and  \  \infty which means that the integral has an infinite interval of integration , hence it is  a Type 1 improper integral

Considering  c

       \int\limits^{\infty}_{- \infty} {x^2 e^{-x^2}} \, dx

Looking at this integral we see that the interval is between -\infty \ and  \  \infty which means that the integral has an infinite interval of integration , hence it is  a Type 1 improper integral

Considering  d

        \int\limits^{\frac{\pi}{4} }_0  {cot (x)} \, dx

Looking at the integral  we see that  at  x =  0  cot (0) will be infinity  hence the  integral has an infinite discontinuity , so  it is a  Type 2 improper integral

     

7 0
3 years ago
Round 1231.50432 to the nearest tenth
Verizon [17]

Answer:

1231.5

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope this help.

5 0
3 years ago
The The geometrics decide to play a concert in the gym. The gym measures 100 feet long by 60 feet wide by 30 feet tall. The band
hammer [34]
So what you do is multiply 60, 30, and 100 together to get 180,000. Then divide 180,000 by 18,000 (simplify it to 180 ÷ 18) and the answer is 10. So they could turn it up 10 notches.
7 0
3 years ago
Al factorizar el trinomio cuadrado perfecto, obtenemos el siguiente resultado: (que no se como resolver) xd algun pro que sepa r
PolarNik [594]

Answer:

\displaystyle \frac{100}{81}m^8p^{12}q^{16}z^2-\frac{20}{63}m^5p^7q^8z^5+ \frac{1}{49}m^2p^2z^8=\left(\frac{10}{9}m^4p^{6}q^{8}z-\frac{1}{7}mpz^4\right)^2

Step-by-step explanation:

<u>Trinomio Cuadrado Perfecto</u>

El producto notable llamado cuadrado de un binomio se expresa como:

(a-b)^2=a^2-2ab+b^2

Si se tiene un trinomio, es posible convertirlo en un cuadrado perfecto si cumple con las condiciones impuestas en la fórmula:

* El primer término es un cuadrado perfecto

* El último término es un cuadrado perfecto

* El segundo término es el doble del proudcto de los dos términos del binomio.

Tenemos la expresión:

\displaystyle \frac{100}{81}m^8p^{12}q^{16}z^2-\frac{20}{63}m^5p^7q^8z^5+ \frac{1}{49}m^2p^2z^8

Calculamos el valor de a como la raiz cuadrada del primer término del trinomio:

\displaystyle a=\sqrt{\frac{100}{81}m^8p^{12}q^{16}z^2}

\displaystyle a=\frac{10}{9}m^4p^{6}q^{8}z

Calculamos el valor de a como la raiz cuadrada del primer término del trinomio:

\displaystyle b=\sqrt{\frac{1}{49}m^2p^2z^8

\displaystyle b=\frac{1}{7}mpz^4

Nos cercioramos de que el término central es 2ab:

\displaystyle 2ab=2\frac{10}{9}m^4p^{6}q^{8}z\frac{1}{7}mpz^4

Operando:

\displaystyle 2ab=\frac{20}{63}m^5p^7q^8z^5

Una vez verificado, ahora podemos decir que:

\displaystyle \frac{100}{81}m^8p^{12}q^{16}z^2-\frac{20}{63}m^5p^7q^8z^5+ \frac{1}{49}m^2p^2z^8=\left(\frac{10}{9}m^4p^{6}q^{8}z-\frac{1}{7}mpz^4\right)^2

5 0
2 years ago
Dose anyone know the answer to this question
marishachu [46]

Answer:

Option D!

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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