Point V lies between points U and W on Line segment U W.

Explain why each of the following integrals is improper. (a) 4 x x − 3 dx 3 Since the integral has an infinite interval of integ

erma4kov [3.2K]

Answer:

a

Since the integral has an infinite discontinuity, it is a Type 2 improper integral

b

Since the integral has an infinite interval of integration, it is a Type 1 improper integral

c

Since the integral has an infinite interval of integration, it is a Type 1 improper integral

d

Since the integral has an infinite discontinuity, it is a Type 2 improper integral

Step-by-step explanation:

Considering a

$\int\limits^4_3 {\frac{x}{x- 3} } \, dx$

Looking at this we that at x = 3 this integral will be infinitely discontinuous

Considering b

$\int\limits^{\infty}_0 {\frac{1}{1 + x^3} } \, dx$

Looking at this integral we see that the interval is between $0 \ and \ \infty$ which means that the integral has an infinite interval of integration , hence it is a Type 1 improper integral

Considering c

$\int\limits^{\infty}_{- \infty} {x^2 e^{-x^2}} \, dx$

Looking at this integral we see that the interval is between $-\infty \ and \ \infty$ which means that the integral has an infinite interval of integration , hence it is a Type 1 improper integral

Considering d

$\int\limits^{\frac{\pi}{4} }_0 {cot (x)} \, dx$

Looking at the integral we see that at x = 0 cot (0) will be infinity hence the integral has an infinite discontinuity , so it is a Type 2 improper integral

7 0

3 years ago

Round 1231.50432 to the nearest tenth

Verizon [17]

Answer:

1231.5

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope this help.

5 0

3 years ago

The The geometrics decide to play a concert in the gym. The gym measures 100 feet long by 60 feet wide by 30 feet tall. The band

hammer [34]

So what you do is multiply 60, 30, and 100 together to get 180,000. Then divide 180,000 by 18,000 (simplify it to 180 ÷ 18) and the answer is 10. So they could turn it up 10 notches.

7 0

3 years ago

Al factorizar el trinomio cuadrado perfecto, obtenemos el siguiente resultado: (que no se como resolver) xd algun pro que sepa r

PolarNik [594]

Answer:

$\displaystyle \frac{100}{81}m^8p^{12}q^{16}z^2-\frac{20}{63}m^5p^7q^8z^5+ \frac{1}{49}m^2p^2z^8=\left(\frac{10}{9}m^4p^{6}q^{8}z-\frac{1}{7}mpz^4\right)^2$

Step-by-step explanation:

<u>Trinomio Cuadrado Perfecto</u>

El producto notable llamado cuadrado de un binomio se expresa como:

$(a-b)^2=a^2-2ab+b^2$

Si se tiene un trinomio, es posible convertirlo en un cuadrado perfecto si cumple con las condiciones impuestas en la fórmula:

* El primer término es un cuadrado perfecto

* El último término es un cuadrado perfecto

* El segundo término es el doble del proudcto de los dos términos del binomio.

Tenemos la expresión:

$\displaystyle \frac{100}{81}m^8p^{12}q^{16}z^2-\frac{20}{63}m^5p^7q^8z^5+ \frac{1}{49}m^2p^2z^8$

Calculamos el valor de a como la raiz cuadrada del primer término del trinomio:

$\displaystyle a=\sqrt{\frac{100}{81}m^8p^{12}q^{16}z^2}$

$\displaystyle a=\frac{10}{9}m^4p^{6}q^{8}z$

Calculamos el valor de a como la raiz cuadrada del primer término del trinomio:

$\displaystyle b=\sqrt{\frac{1}{49}m^2p^2z^8$

$\displaystyle b=\frac{1}{7}mpz^4$

Nos cercioramos de que el término central es 2ab:

$\displaystyle 2ab=2\frac{10}{9}m^4p^{6}q^{8}z\frac{1}{7}mpz^4$

Operando:

$\displaystyle 2ab=\frac{20}{63}m^5p^7q^8z^5$

Una vez verificado, ahora podemos decir que:

$\displaystyle \frac{100}{81}m^8p^{12}q^{16}z^2-\frac{20}{63}m^5p^7q^8z^5+ \frac{1}{49}m^2p^2z^8=\left(\frac{10}{9}m^4p^{6}q^{8}z-\frac{1}{7}mpz^4\right)^2$

5 0

2 years ago

Dose anyone know the answer to this question

marishachu [46]

Answer:

Option D!

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers