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ycow [4]
3 years ago
14

Which interest-bearing account is best for people who won't need access to their money for several months or longer?

Business
1 answer:
Alecsey [184]3 years ago
3 0
The answer is A. 
CD(<span>Certificate of Deposit)</span> is similar to a saving account, but it has additional perks. There is a minimum amount of money you have to deposit and you have to deposit that money for a certain amount of time (term). CDs have better interest rate than savings accounts, but if you withdraw your money before the term you pay penalties.
This makes them a good option for people have some extra money that they won't need in a near future.
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Smart Stream Inc. uses the total cost method of applying the cost-plus approach to product pricing. The costs of producing and s
Amiraneli [1.4K]

Answer:

(a). Total variable Cost = $2,890,000

Total variable Cost Per Unit  = $289  

(b). Variable Cost Markup Percentage = 12.46%

(c). Selling Price Per Unit = $325

Explanation:

According to the scenario, computation of the given data are as follow:-

a). Total Fixed Cost = Selling and Administrative Expenses + Factory Overhead

= $140,000 + $350,000 = $490,000

Fixed Cost Per Unit = Total Fixed Cost ÷ Cost of Produced and Selling Units

= $490,000 ÷ 10,000 = $49

Total variable Cost Per Unit = Fixed Cost Per Unit + Variable Cost Per Unit

= $49 + $240 = $289

Total variable Cost = Cost of Produced and Selling Units × Total Cost Per Unit

= 10,000 × $289 = $2,890,000

b). Desired Profit = Invested Assets × 30%

= $1,200,000 × 30÷100 = $360,000

Variable Cost Markup Percentage = Desired Profit ÷ Total Cost

=$360,000 ÷ $2,890,000 = 0.1246 = 12.46%

c). Selling Price Per Unit = (1 + Variable Cost Markup Percentage) × Total Cost Per Unit

= (1 + 12.46%) × $289

= 1.1246 × $289

= $325

7 0
3 years ago
Today, you have two coins each of which is valued at $100. One coin is expected to appreciate by 5.2 percent annually while the
ziro4ka [17]

Answer:

=$337.43

Explanation:

The value of each of the coins after 50 years is the future value after 50 years at their respective interest rate.

The formula for  future value is FV = PV × (1+r)n

For the first coin at 5.2 percent,

Fv = 100 x ( 1 + 5.2/100 ) 50

Fv =100 x (1+ 0.052) 50

Fv = 100 x 12. 61208795

Fv = $1,261. 21

For the second coin at 5.7 percent,

Fv = 100 x (1 + 5.7 /100)50

Fv =100 x (1 + 0.057 )50

Fv = 100 x 15.98

Fv = 1, 598. 64

the difference in value will be

=$1598.64 - $1,261.21

=$337.43

6 0
4 years ago
Wine and Roses, Inc. offers a 7% coupon bond with semiannual payments and a yield to maturity of 7.73%. The bonds mature in 9 ye
Art [367]

Answer:

current market price = $953.29

Explanation:

the market price of the bond = present value of the face value + present value of coupon payments

PV of face value = $1,000 / (1 + 3.865%)¹⁸ = $505.31

PV of coupon payments = $35 x 12.79935 (PV annuity factor, 3.865%, 18 periods) = $447.98

current market price = $505.31 + $447.98 = $953.29

5 0
3 years ago
A division of Frank Clothiers had 36 openings for assistant store manager last year. As part of their voluntary affirmative acti
statuscvo [17]

Answer:

Explanation:

Yes, Disparate Impact Theory can be used in this case relating to the processes of subjective selection such as interrogations. If a discriminatory workplace practice has an unfair and aggressive impact on minorities, it may be in violation of Title VII. Professional individual employees who support on the basis of discretionary judgments without intending to do so are engaging in biased conduct.

The case of Watson V. Fort Worth Bank & Trust will be used to support my claim. Clara Watson turned down a promotion that was contingent on an interview under this scenario.

The U.s. Supreme Court Declared that a Title VII claim to a strategy of subjection enforcement can only be investigated under the unequal care principle. In the majority decision, the Court allowed the principle of (disparate effects) to apply to arbitrarily defined work practices.

4 0
3 years ago
On January 1, 2020, Tamarisk Corporation issued $700,000 of 9% bonds, due in 8 years. The bonds were issued for $740,784, and pa
EleoNora [17]

Answer:

Cash   740,783 debit

  Bonds payable    700,000 credit

  Premium ob BP      40,783 credit

--to record issuance--

Interest expense 29,631.32 debit

premium on BP      1,868.68 debit

         cash                     31,500  credit

--to reocrd first interest payment--

Interest expense 29,556.57 debit

premium on BP      1,943.43 debit

     interest payable          31,500  credit

--to record accrued interest at year-end on BP--

Explanation:

procceds                      740,783

face value                <u>     700,000    </u>

premium on bonds payable 40,783

When comparing, the firm received more than the face value hence, there is a premium on the bonds as the coupon payment are above the market rate.

Now, the interest will be calculate as follow:

carrying value x market rate:

740,783 x 0.08/2 = 29,631.32 interest expense

cash outlay:

700,000 x 0.09/2 = 31,500

amortization on premium (difference) 1,868.68

new carrying value: 740,783 - 1,868,68 = 738,914

second payment accrual:

738,914 x 0.04 = 29,556.57

cash outlay                  31500

amortization    1,943.43

7 0
3 years ago
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