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3 years ago

Divide. 56÷(−23) −54 −59 59 54

Mathematics

2 answers:

Vsevolod [243]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

59/1

Step-by-step explanation:

0 = 0 = 0 = 0 = 0 < 54 < 56 < 59

0 is equal to 0 is equal to 0 is equal to 0 is equal to 0 is less than 54 is less than 56 is less than 59

mart [117]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

come to my question like this and it will have an answer

Step-by-step explanation:

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vitfil [10]

Answer:

1. 15.4

2. 9.66

3. 13.16

4. 12.32

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

For what value of "a" will the product shown below have a purely imaginary value? (Show work please)

MakcuM [25]

If you expand out the brackets you get this,

(4+5i)(a+2i) = 4a + (5a)i + 8i - 10

The -10 comes from 5i * 2i.
Squaring i becomes -1.

Let's group the real stuff together,
and imaginary separately,

(4a - 10) + (5a + 8)i

For this to be purely imaginary,
the real part needs to be zero.

Therefore 4a - 10 = 0

Solve for a.

5 0

3 years ago

A triangular pyramid is formed from three right triangles as shown below.

Lady bird [3.3K]

ΔADC is a right angle triangle, we will use the Pythagorus Theorem to find the length CD.

Formula of the Pythagorus Theorem :

⇒ a² + b² = c²

⇒ AD² + CD² = AC²

The value of AD is 54 and the value of AC is 90:

54² + CD² = 90²

Solve for CD:

54² + CD² = 90²

CD² = 90² - 54²

CD² = 5184

CD = √5184

CD = 72

ΔADC is also a right angle triangle, we will use the Pythagorus Theorem to find the length BD.

Formula of the Pythagorus Theorem :

⇒ a² + b² = c²

⇒ BD² + CD² = BC²

The value of CD is 72 and the value of BC is 97:

BD² + 72² = 97²

Solve for BD:

BD² = 97² - 72²

BD² = 4225

BD = √4225

BD = 65

Answer: The length of BD is 65 units.

7 0

3 years ago

A research study uses 800 men under the age of 55. Suppose that 30% carry a marker on the male chromosome that indicates an incr

ss7ja [257]

Answer:

a) There is a 12.11% probability that exactly 1 man has the marker.

b) There is a 85.07% probability that more than 1 has the marker.

Step-by-step explanation:

There are only two possible outcomes: Either the men has the chromosome, or he hasn't. So we use the binomial probability distribution.

Binomial probability

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.\pi^{x}.(1-\pi)^{n-x}$

In which $C_{n,x}$ is the number of different combinatios of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

And $\pi$ is the probability of X happening.

In this problem, we have that:

30% carry a marker on the male chromosome that indicates an increased risk for high blood pressure, so $\pi = 0.30$

(a) If 10 men are selected randomly and tested for the marker, what is the probability that exactly 1 man has the marker?

10 men, so $n = 10$

We want to find P(X = 1). So:

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.\pi^{x}.(1-\pi)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 1) = C_{10,1}.(0.30)^{1}.(0.7)^{9} = 0.1211$

There is a 12.11% probability that exactly 1 man has the marker.

(b) If 10 men are selected randomly and tested for the marker, what is the probability that more than 1 has the marker?

That is $P(X > 1)$

We have that:

$P(X \leq 1) + P(X > 1) = 1$

$P(X > 1) = 1 - P(X \leq 1)$

We also have that:

$P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)$

$P(X = 0) = C_{10,0}.(0.30)^{0}.(0.7)^{10} = 0.0282$

$P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.0282 + 0.1211 = 0.1493$

Finally

$P(X > 1) = 1 - P(X \leq 1) = 1 - 0.1493 = 0.8507$

There is a 85.07% probability that more than 1 has the marker.

3 0

3 years ago

|y-x|, if y>x PLZ HELP

kramer

Answer:

56tt8989899999999×-×554545--455356788:988

6 0

2 years ago

Divide. 56÷(−23) −54 ​ −59 ​ 59 ​ 54

Divide. 56÷(−23) −54 −59 59 54